This quiz consists of 150 multiple-choice questions divided into two sections:
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Part 1: 100 questions — Horticulture / Floriculture / Gardening
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Part 2: 50 questions — Reasoning, Mathematics, English, General Knowledge, Computer Awareness
Marking Scheme:
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+1 mark for every correct answer
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–0.25 mark for every incorrect answer
Quiz Questions:
Q1. Which propagation method is best for maintaining true-to-type traits in rose commercial nurseries?
A) Seed propagation
B) Root cuttings
C) Budding/grafting on standard rootstock
D) Air layering
Answer: C
Explanation: Budding or grafting onto selected rootstocks preserves cultivar traits and vigor. Rootstocks also confer disease resistance and influence vigour.
Q2. Pinching of chrysanthemum is performed primarily to:
A) Promote taller single stem
B) Induce lateral branching and more sprays
C) Increase root length
D) Delay flowering indefinitely
Answer: B
Explanation: Pinching removes apical dominance, encouraging multiple lateral shoots and increasing spray number and flower yield.
Q3. Disbudding in rose production is done to:
A) Remove lateral buds to produce larger exhibition blooms
B) Encourage bushiness
C) Increase number of flowers per stem
D) Prevent root diseases
Answer: A
Explanation: Disbudding removes side buds so energy concentrates on one main bud, producing larger, high-grade exhibition blooms.
Q4. Which viral disease of gladiolus is commonly transmitted by aphids?
A) Mosaic (tobacco mosaic)
B) Cucumber mosaic virus (CMV)
C) Tobacco streak virus
D) Tomato spotted wilt virus
Answer: B
Explanation: CMV infects many ornamentals and is aphid-transmitted in nonpersistent manner, causing mosaic and distortion in gladiolus.
Q5. For gladiolus corm production, the recommended planting depth for cormels is approximately:
A) 1–2 cm
B) 4–6 cm
C) 10–12 cm
D) 20–25 cm
Answer: B
Explanation: Planting cormels at 4–6 cm provides adequate soil cover for rooting and sprout protection while allowing good emergence.
Q6. Which rootstock is commonly used for rose grafting to improve vigor and tolerance to root-knot nematodes?
A) Rosa multiflora
B) Rosa chinensis
C) Rosa indica ‘Major’
D) Rosa rugosa
Answer: A
Explanation: R. multiflora is often used as a vigorous rootstock and shows relatively better tolerance to some soil pests; selection depends on local trials.
Q7. Blossom end rot in tuberose or other bulbous ornamentals is primarily due to deficiency of:
A) Nitrogen
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B
Explanation: Calcium deficiency causes localized tissue breakdown at growing points, often linked to irregular water supply affecting uptake.
Q8. Which insect is the principal vector of Tomato spotted wilt virus (TSWV) affecting many ornamentals?
A) Aphids
B) Thrips
C) Whiteflies
D) Leafhoppers
Answer: B
Explanation: Thrips (e.g., Frankliniella spp.) transmit TSWV in a persistent manner; they are a major vector in ornamentals.
Q9. For establishing a cool-season annual flower bed (winter annuals), typical seed rate (per sq. m) for petunia broadcast sowing is about:
A) 0.1 g/m²
B) 1–2 g/m²
C) 10 g/m²
D) 50 g/m²
Answer: B
Explanation: Petunia seeds are tiny; recommended broadcast rates are low (approx 1–2 g/m²) with fine seedbed and light covering.
Q10. Which pruning type is used to rejuvenate old flowering shrubs by cutting back to basal growth?
A) Thinning pruning
B) Renewal/rejuvenation pruning
C) Heading back
D) Espalier pruning
Answer: B
Explanation: Rejuvenation pruning removes old wood to stimulate new basal shoots and restore vigor in aging shrubs.
Q11. A greenhouse-suitable carnation variety for protected cultivation should ideally have:
A) High lodging tendency
B) Short vase life
C) Long internodes and uniform stem length
D) Weak stem strength
Answer: C
Explanation: For cut flowers, uniform long stems, good stem strength and long vase life are preferred; protected cultivation enhances consistency.
Q12. Which colour is classified as a secondary colour in subtractive colour mixing for flower design?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Orange
Answer: C
Explanation: In subtractive mixing (pigments), green can be formed by mixing yellow and blue in some systems; secondary colours include green, orange, violet depending on model.
Q13. Tuberose spike yield per hectare under well-managed cultivation is typically expressed in:
A) kg/ha
B) spikes/ha
C) bulbs/ha
D) stems/ha
Answer: B
Explanation: Cut flower production is often measured in number of spikes per hectare to indicate marketable units.
Q14. Which principle is NOT considered a basic element of landscape design?
A) Scale and proportion
B) Line and form
C) Saturation and icing
D) Balance and unity
Answer: C
Explanation: Scale, line, form, balance, unity and rhythm are design principles; “saturation and icing” is not a standard design principle.
Q15. Which practice reduces powdery mildew incidence in roses?
A) Overhead watering at night
B) Dense planting with poor air circulation
C) Improve air circulation, timely fungicide spray
D) Increase nitrogen fertilization only
Answer: C
Explanation: Powdery mildew is favored by high humidity and poor air flow; improving ventilation and fungicide use reduces disease.
Q16. Which flower is best suited for rockery beds because of low stature and drought tolerance?
A) Zinnia elegans
B) Portulaca grandiflora (Moss rose)
C) Tuberose
D) Gladiolus
Answer: B
Explanation: Portulaca is succulent, low-growing, drought-tolerant and ideal for rockeries and sunny, well-drained sites.
Q17. For a hanging basket display in summer, which annual is most suitable?
A) Geranium zonale
B) Lobelia erinus
C) Chrysanthemum morifolium
D) Gladiolus spp.
Answer: B
Explanation: Lobelia has trailing habit and tolerates cooler/semi-shaded summer conditions in baskets for vivid colour display.
Q18. Which propagation method is fastest to multiply Pelargonium (geranium) true-to-type?
A) Seeds
B) Softwood cuttings
C) Division of tubers
D) Layering
Answer: B
Explanation: Softwood or semi-hardwood stem cuttings root readily and maintain cultivar identity, making them ideal for geranium propagation.
Q19. Which disorder causes “blind” or non-flowering shoots in chrysanthemum and is linked to:
A) Excess phosphorus
B) Insufficient chilling or bud development issue
C) Overwatering only
D) Thrips infestation
Answer: B
Explanation: Blindness (failure to form flower buds) can be due to inadequate environmental cues like chilling, photoperiod or nutrient imbalances.
Q20. Which mushroom of the following is commonly used as a biological control for soilborne fungal pathogens in ornamentals via Trichoderma spp. application?
A) Agaricus
B) Trichoderma species (biocontrol fungus)
C) Pleurotus
D) Lentinula
Answer: B
Explanation: Trichoderma spp. are fungi applied as biocontrol agents to suppress pathogenic fungi in soil and on roots.
Q21. Mutation breeding produced many novel flower colours. Which technique accelerates mutation creation in ornamentals?
A) Tissue culture alone
B) Gamma/chemical mutagenesis followed by selection
C) Simple seed saving
D) Only pruning
Answer: B
Explanation: Mutagenesis (gamma rays, EMS) followed by screening can create and identify novel mutants with altered flower colour or morphology.
Q22. Which viral disease is typically vectored by whiteflies in ornamentals (e.g., begomoviruses)?
A) TMV
B) Begomovirus (tomato leaf curl-like)
C) Botrytis
D) Downy mildew
Answer: B
Explanation: Begomoviruses are transmitted by whiteflies and cause severe leaf curling, stunting and yield loss in many ornamentals.
Q23. Ideal seedbed preparation for fine seed sowing (e.g., petunia) requires:
A) Coarse aggregates and heavy compaction
B) Fine tilth, firm but not compact seedbed, good drainage and leveling
C) Deep ridges only
D) No leveling
Answer: B
Explanation: Tiny seeds need a fine, firm seedbed for good seed-to-soil contact and uniform germination; excessive compaction reduces emergence.
Q24. Which element is primary in chroma/pigment expression of many red flowers (anthocyanins)?
A) Nitrogen only
B) pH and substrate ions influence anthocyanin pigment expression
C) Iron only
D) Calcium only
Answer: B
Explanation: Anthocyanin colour expression is influenced strongly by cellular pH, metal ion complexing and co-pigments.
Q25. Which turf grass is recommended for high-traffic tropical lawns with quick recovery?
A) Kentucky bluegrass
B) Bermuda grass (Cynodon dactylon)
C) Tall fescue
D) Bentgrass
Answer: B
Explanation: Bermuda is durable, tolerates traffic and recovers quickly via stolons and rhizomes; suitable for tropical lawns.
Q26. Which planting system gives maximum planting density per unit area for orchard or ornamental planting?
A) Square system
B) Triangular (hexagonal) system
C) Contour planting
D) Random planting
Answer: B
Explanation: Triangular (hexagonal) planting increases plants per unit area compared to square arrangement due to closer packing.
Q27. In cut flower grading, vase life is most influenced by:
A) Petal colour only
B) Pre-harvest water and nutrient management, cultivar genetics, and postharvest handling
C) Height alone
D) Seed rate
Answer: B
Explanation: Vase life is multi-factorial: cultivar inherent longevity plus cultural practices and handling determine postharvest life.
Q28. Which rose cultivar is known for being vigorous and disease tolerant (example of a rootstock/scion breeding target)?
A) Highly susceptible hybrid with thin canes
B) Modern floribunda with improved powdery mildew tolerance
C) A cultivar that never flowers
D) A low-yielding wild species only
Answer: B
Explanation: Modern breeding aims for floribundas/modern hybrids with vigour and improved disease tolerance—these are used as scions/rootstocks.
Q29. Which pruning timing is best for spring-flowering shrubs (e.g., camellia) to avoid cutting off flower buds?
A) Late winter after bloom
B) Just before bud formation
C) Mid-summer during flowering
D) Early spring before bloom initiation
Answer: A
Explanation: Pruning soon after flowering prevents removal of next season’s flower buds; timing depends on species phenology.
Q30. Which disease shows “ring spots” and is often viral in ornamentals?
A) Bacterial leaf spot
B) Viral mosaic or ring spot caused by specific viruses
C) Fungal rust
D) Nutrient burn
Answer: B
Explanation: Ring spots are characteristic of several viral infections and indicate systemic virus infection in many ornamentals.
Q31. Recommended seed rate (broadcast) for marigold (winter types) per hectare is approximately:
A) 0.1–0.25 kg/ha
B) 0.5–1.0 kg/ha
C) 4–6 kg/ha
D) 15–20 kg/ha
Answer: C
Explanation: Marigold seeds are relatively larger; recommended rates for direct sowing are several kg/ha (commonly 4–6 kg/ha) for dense stands.
Q32. Which method is preferred to propagate bougainvillea for true-type and early flowering?
A) Seed propagation
B) Hardwood cuttings
C) Division
D) Tissue culture
Answer: B
Explanation: Hardwood cuttings are commonly used for bougainvillea for true-to-type clones and faster establishment than seeds.
Q33. A virus symptom of “stunting with chlorotic streaks” in gerbera is most likely caused by:
A) Bacterial blight
B) Viral infection such as CMV or related viruses vectored by aphids
C) Nutrient excess
D) Soil nematode only
Answer: B
Explanation: Viruses like CMV cause stunting and chlorotic streaking; accurate diagnosis requires lab testing and vector control.
Q34. Which ornamental shows greatest benefit from floret thinning (disbudding) to increase single large bloom size?
A) Spray chrysanthemum
B) Hybrid tea rose (central bloom disbud)
C) Pot marigold
D) Cosmos
Answer: B
Explanation: Hybrid tea roses benefit from removing side buds so the terminal bud develops into a large exhibition bloom.
Q35. For greenhouse carnation production, best rooting medium characteristics are:
A) Heavy clay mix
B) Well-drained, inert medium like perlite-peat with good aeration
C) Pure garden soil without drainage
D) Waterlogged mulch
Answer: B
Explanation: Carnation cuttings root best in free-draining, aerated media allowing oxygen to roots while retaining moisture.
Q36. Which flower is most suitable for drying (retains colour and shape after air-drying)?
A) Gypsophila (baby’s breath)
B) Tuberose
C) Rose (fresh)
D) Dahlia
Answer: A
Explanation: Gypsophila dries well maintaining form and colour; many statice species and strawflowers are excellent for drying.
Q37. Which is a tertiary colour in subtractive mixing for floral palette (pigment model)?
A) Red
B) Yellow
C) Vermilion
D) Brownish hues formed by mixing secondary colors (tertiary)
Answer: D
Explanation: Tertiary colours result from mixing primary and secondary pigments, giving nuanced browns/olive tones used in complex palettes.
Q38. Which fungal pathogen causes “stem rot” in many bulb crops including tuberose and gladiolus?
A) Sclerotium rolfsii (Athelia rolfsii)
B) Tobacco mosaic virus
C) Aphids
D) Bacterial soft rot
Answer: A
Explanation: Sclerotium rolfsii causes basal stem rot in many ornamentals, leading to wilting and decay of underground parts.
Q39. Which flower variety released recently by a national institute is associated with improved tuberose genotype IIHR 17-23SP-08 (noted in IIHR trials)?
A) A generic unnamed type
B) IIHR genotype trials reported superior performance (IIHR evaluation 2023). :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0}
Answer: B
Explanation: IIHR reported superior tuberose genotype IIHR 17-23SP-08 with higher plant height and spike number in evaluation trials. :contentReference[oaicite:1]{index=1}
Q40. Which is a greenhouse-suitable variety of rose for protected cut-flower production (example reported in recent varietal lists)?
A) Any wild rose only
B) Arka Ivory (example of rose released for protected cultivation; reported in varietal compilations). :contentReference[oaicite:2]{index=2}
Answer: B
Explanation: Arka Ivory is cited in recent compilations as suited for protected cultivation with good cut-flower potential. :contentReference[oaicite:3]{index=3}
Q41. Which organization released a large batch of new varieties (109 varieties across crops) in Aug 2024 at PUSA, New Delhi?
A) ICAR/PAU local program
B) National releases event (109 varieties released—official PIB release Aug 11, 2024). :contentReference[oaicite:4]{index=4}
Answer: B
Explanation: A government release at PUSA detailed release of many varieties across field and horticultural crops on 11 Aug 2024. :contentReference[oaicite:5]{index=5}
Q42. Which Indian state was adjudged ‘Best State in Horticulture’ in the Agriculture Leadership Awards 2024?
A) Kerala
B) Nagaland (Agriculture Leadership Awards 2024 recognition). :contentReference[oaicite:6]{index=6}
Answer: B
Explanation: Nagaland received the Best State in Horticulture award for 2024 for its innovative horticulture programs. :contentReference[oaicite:7]{index=7}
Q43. Which lawn renovation method is best for cool-season turf in spring?
A) Dethatching and overseeding with compatible cultivars
B) Waterlogging
C) Heavy rolling only
D) No renovation required
Answer: A
Explanation: Dethatching and overseeding improves turf density and recovers damaged areas using compatible cultivars.
Q44. Which propagation technique produces virus-free ornamentals rapidly at scale?
A) Field cuttings only
B) Micropropagation (tissue culture) with meristem culture for virus elimination
C) Seed sowing of hybrids
D) Layering only
Answer: B
Explanation: Meristem culture and in vitro propagation can eliminate systemic viruses and rapidly multiply true-to-type, clean plants.
Q45. Which vector transmits begomoviruses that infect many ornamentals causing leaf curling and yellowing?
A) Thrips
B) Whitefly (Bemisia tabaci)
C) Nematodes
D) Earthworms
Answer: B
Explanation: Whitefly transmits begomoviruses in a persistent manner, causing severe viral diseases in ornamentals.
Q46. Best time for pinching chrysanthemum for spray production (to get 3–6 branches) is:
A) Immediately after transplant when 3–4 nodes develop
B) At flowering
C) After full maturity of plant
D) Never pinch
Answer: A
Explanation: Early pinching after establishment when 3–4 nodes have developed encourages multiple shoots and scheduled flowering.
Q47. Which feature defines a “cottage garden” style?
A) Strict symmetry and formal axes
B) Informal, dense mixed plantings with emphasis on flowers and charm
C) Minimalist rock placement only
D) Only water features
Answer: B
Explanation: Cottage gardens favor mixed informal plantings, dense borders and a relaxed, romantic aesthetic.
Q48. Which seed propagation parameter is critical for small-seeded annuals like lobelia and snapdragons?
A) Deep sowing (2–3 cm)
B) Surface sowing with light covering and firming
C) Planting after heavy compaction
D) Using clay-rich heavy soil
Answer: B
Explanation: Small seeds require surface or shallow sowing to allow light/germination cues and good soil contact without deep burial.
Q49. Which postharvest treatment extends vase life of cut roses?
A) Warm water holding only
B) Use of a solution containing sugar, acidifier and biocide (e.g., sucrose + citric acid + chlorine)
C) Direct sun exposure
D) No water
Answer: B
Explanation: Carbohydrate supply, pH control and antimicrobial agents in holding solutions prolong vase life by sustaining respiration and preventing bacterial blockage.
Q50. For rockery beds, which clumping perennial with silvery foliage is commonly used?
A) Artemisia spp.
B) Tuberose
C) Hibiscus
D) Dahlia
Answer: A
Explanation: Artemisia has silvery, aromatic foliage and a low, clumping habit suited to rocky, well-drained sites.
Q51. Which rootstock-scion combination is commonly used in carnation to impart vigor and disease tolerance?
A) Dianthus caryophyllus on unknown rootstock only
B) Use of vigorous Dianthus rootstock selections; choices depend on breeder recommendations
C) Grafted on apple rootstock
D) Grafted on citrus rootstock
Answer: B
Explanation: Carnation rootstock choices are cultivar-specific and often come from vigorous Dianthus selections tested for disease tolerance.
Q52. Which fungal disease is characterized by “white powdery coating” on leaves of many ornamentals?
A) Downy mildew
B) Powdery mildew (Erysiphales)
C) Bacterial leaf spot
D) Viral mosaics
Answer: B
Explanation: Powdery mildew forms superficial white mycelial growth on leaves; controlled by cultural measures and fungicides.
Q53. Which plant group includes many candidates for dried flower industry due to lasting inflorescences?
A) Succulents only
B) Statice, strawflower (Helichrysum), Achillea and others
C) Fresh roses only
D) Tuberose only
Answer: B
Explanation: Statice, strawflower and yarrow keep shape and colour after drying and are staples of the dried flower industry.
Q54. Which practice increases spike yield per square meter in gladiolus under irrigated conditions?
A) Wide spacing only
B) Proper spacing, balanced fertilizer, corm size selection and irrigation scheduling
C) No fertilization
D) Excessive shade
Answer: B
Explanation: Density, nutrition, corm selection and timely irrigation are key determinants of gladiolus spike yield.
Q55. Which powdery mildew control strategy works best in greenhouse ornamentals?
A) Increasing humidity
B) Reducing relative humidity, increasing airflow and applying systemic/contact fungicide rotations
C) Complete shading
D) Overhead watering at night
Answer: B
Explanation: Lower humidity, improved air movement and fungicide programs prevent powdery mildew development in confined greenhouses.
Q56. Which flower is often used as a “focal plant” in formal beds because of vertical form and spires?
A) Lupinus (lupin)
B) Creeping thyme
C) Moss rose
D) Sedum
Answer: A
Explanation: Lupins provide vertical interest with spires of flowers and are used as focal points in formal and informal beds.
Q57. Which variety group is often used for indoor potted bonsai with small leaves?
A) Large-leaf trees only
B) Ficus retusa, Serissa, Carmona (small-leaf woody plants)
C) Tuberose and gladiolus
D) Tall palm species
Answer: B
Explanation: Small-leaf woody species like Ficus retusa suit bonsai due to leaf size and response to pruning.
Q58. Which viral diagnostic method provides definitive detection for ornamental crops?
A) Visual inspection alone
B) ELISA or PCR (molecular assays) for specific virus detection
C) Taste testing
D) Soil colour check
Answer: B
Explanation: ELISA and PCR are sensitive, specific diagnostic tools for identifying viruses in plant tissues.
Q59. Which gladiolus variety from the ICAR–IARI/IIHR series has been reported in recent varietal trials for improved spike quality and vase life?
A) Arka Amar
B) Pusa Urmi
C) Arka Naveen
D) Arka Shobha
Answer: A
Explanation:
Arka Amar (from the Arka/IIHR gladiolus series) has been documented in recent varietal evaluations for better spike length, floret size, and overall vase-life performance in trial reports.
Q60. Which soil pH is generally preferred for most floriculture crops (ornamentals)?
A) pH 3–4 (very acidic)
B) pH 5.5–7.0 (slightly acidic to neutral)
C) pH 8.5–9 (strongly alkaline)
D) pH 10–11
Answer: B
Explanation: Most ornamentals prefer slightly acidic to neutral soils (approx 5.5–7) for optimum nutrient availability.
Q61. Which technique is preferred for multiplying virus-free rose rootstocks at scale?
A) Field cutting only
B) Tissue-culture (micropropagation) from disease-free stock
C) Seed propagation from mixed sources
D) Division of mature roots only
Answer: B
Explanation: Micropropagation from indexed, virus-free material allows rapid multiplication of clean rootstocks.
Q62. Which pest is the main vector of chrysanthemum virus X (hypothetical example) in many crops?
A) Mealybug
B) Aphid species (common virus vectors)
C) Earthworm
D) Slug
Answer: B
Explanation: Aphids are frequent vectors for many plant viruses due to their feeding behavior and rapid population growth.
Q63. Which ornamental crop’s quality is most sensitive to preharvest nitrogen excess (leading to soft stems and disease susceptibility)?
A) Narcissus
B) Many ornamentals including roses and cut flower crops
C) Only succulents
D) Only cacti
Answer: B
Explanation: Excess N can cause lush soft growth prone to lodging and diseases; balanced nutrition is critical for cut flower quality.
Q64. Which greenhouse practice reduces fungal disease pressure in humidity-prone ornamentals?
A) Increase misting during evening
B) Proper ventilation, timely heating, and drip irrigation
C) Overhead irrigation at night
D) Sealing ventilation
Answer: B
Explanation: Reduce humidity and leaf wetness via ventilation, avoid overhead watering at vulnerable times and use localized irrigation.
Q65. For producing high-count spray chrysanthemum, optimal disbudding schedule involves:
A) No disbudding; let all buds develop
B) Selective disbudding leaving desired number of lateral buds early after pinching
C) Disbudding after harvest
D) Excessive fertilization without disbudding
Answer: B
Explanation: Controlled disbudding after pinching optimizes number and size of spray heads per plant enhancing market value.
Q66. Which floral design principle addresses the relationship among sizes of elements (big vs small) in a composition?
A) Unity only
B) Scale and proportion
C) Infection control
D) Fertilizer scheduling
Answer: B
Explanation: Scale and proportion ensure elements are visually harmonious relative to human scale and to each other.
Q67. Which flower is commonly recommended for shade areas (deep shade) and produces attractive hanging clusters?
A) Sunflower
B) Impatiens (shade-tolerant) and Begonia (hanging varieties)
C) Marigold
D) Cosmos
Answer: B
Explanation: Begonia (hanging types) and impatiens thrive in shade, offering blooms where sun-loving species fail.
Q68. Which island of India is known for specialized floriculture/Agriculture initiatives (example of regional centers)?
A) Andaman & Nicobar have floriculture/horticulture activities regionally; national centers vary by crop and institute.
Answer: A
Explanation: Regional hubs and ICAR/state institutes exist countrywide for crop-specific work; local initiatives adapt to island climates.
Q69. Which fungi cause “black spot” on roses (classic foliar disease)?
A) Diplocarpon rosae (Black spot fungus)
B) Puccinia only
C) Botrytis exclusively
D) Virus
Answer: A
Explanation: Diplocarpon rosae causes black spot of rose, leading to defoliation; control by sanitation and fungicides is practiced.
Q70. Which trait is preferred in cultivars for mechanized harvesting of cut flowers?
A) Random spike length variability
B) Uniform stem length and synchronous flowering
C) Fragile stems
D) Excessive branching
Answer: B
Explanation: Uniform stem length and synchronized flowering facilitate mechanized harvest and postharvest handling.
Q71. Which greenhouse covering material provides better insulation and diffuse light for floriculture?
A) Clear glass only
B) Polyethylene diffused films with UV stabilizers
C) Metal sheets
D) Heavy black plastic
Answer: B
Explanation: Diffuse polyethylene films reduce direct light hotspots, provide insulation, and improve crop uniformity when UV stabilized.
Q72. Which technique is routinely used to produce single, large gladiolus spikes?
A) No cultural practice
B) Corm size selection and proper spacing enhance spike quality
C) Excessive nitrogen only
D) Late sowing only
Answer: B
Explanation: Using larger corms and optimal spacing produces stronger plants with single, high-quality spikes.
Q73. Which measure reduces whitefly populations (bemisia) in nurseries?
A) Overhead irrigation at dusk
B) Removal of alternate hosts, reflective mulches, and insecticidal schedules
C) No monitoring
D) Excess nitrogen
Answer: B
Explanation: Integrated measures including cultural, reflective mulches, and targeted insecticides/biocontrol reduce whitefly spread.
Q74. Which plant exhibits polyembryony as a propagation trait—useful for true-to-type seedlings? (general floriculture awareness)
A) Many ornamentals, but polyembryony is crop-specific (more common in fruit crops)
Answer: A
Explanation: Polyembryony is more characteristic of fruit crops (lime etc.) than typical ornamentals; the concept is important in propagation contexts.
Q75. Which horticultural award/events in 2024–25 highlighted state achievement (example: Agriculture Leadership Awards 2024)?
A) Random local fairs
B) Agriculture Leadership Awards 2024 recognized Best State in Horticulture (Nagaland). :contentReference[oaicite:10]{index=10}
Answer: B
Explanation: The Agriculture Leadership Awards 2024 recognized states for horticulture innovation; Nagaland won Best State in Horticulture. :contentReference[oaicite:11]{index=11}
Q76. Which potting mix amendment improves aeration for potted ornamentals?
A) Heavy clay only
B) Perlite, coarse sand or cocopeat additions for drainage and aeration
C) Pure silt
D) Standing water base
Answer: B
Explanation: Perlite and coarse sand improve pore space and aeration while retaining some moisture when mixed appropriately.
Q77. Which nursery practice minimizes spread of foliar fungal pathogens?
A) Crowded benches with poor light
B) Sanitation, spacing, and removal of infected material
C) Overwatering foliage daily
D) Planting in stagnant water
Answer: B
Explanation: Sanitation and cultural spacing reduce inoculum load and microclimate favoring pathogens.
Q78. Which flower variety group is widely trialed by IARI and state institutes for gladiolus improvement (docs show IARI released gladiolus varieties 2024)? :contentReference[oaicite:12]{index=12}
A) No trials reported
B) IARI released gladiolus varieties as documented in Journal of Ornamental Horticulture (2024). :contentReference[oaicite:13]{index=13}
Answer: B
Explanation: IARI reported newly released gladiolus varieties in 2024 in scientific communications. :contentReference[oaicite:14]{index=14}
Q79. Which of the following increases cut-flower quality: controlled nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus scheduling or a single high N dose?
A) Single high N dose
B) Balanced fertilization scheduling tuned to phenology
C) No fertilizer
D) Only foliar sprays
Answer: B
Explanation: Balanced macro and micronutrient management aligned to growth stages optimizes flower quality and reduces disease.
Q80. Which plant is recommended for shade-loving hanging baskets in winter climate?
A) Begonia (fibrous-rooted) and trailing fuchsia types
B) Zinnia only
C) Sunflower only
D) Tuberose only
Answer: A
Explanation: Begonia and fuchsia tolerate cooler, shadier winter conditions and perform well in hanging baskets.
Q81. Which morphological trait is a key yield determinant in spray chrysanthemum?
A) Single central bloom only
B) Number of lateral sprays per plant, flower size and uniformity
C) Root depth only
D) Leaf colour only
Answer: B
Explanation: Commercial spray chrysanthemum yield depends on number and size of marketable sprays per plant.
Q82. Which viral vector is commonly associated with cucurbit viruses that may jump hosts to ornamentals?
A) Thrips only
B) Aphids and whiteflies can bridge viruses between crops and ornamentals depending on virus host range
C) Earthworms
D) Birds
Answer: B
Explanation: Aphids and whiteflies are common vectors and can transmit viruses across susceptible host ranges under field proximity.
Q83. Which cut-flower has a typical harvest index measured in stems per plant per season?
A) Cacti only
B) Many cut flowers (e.g., gerbera, rose) measure stems per plant per season as yield metric
C) Pines only
D) Orchids only
Answer: B
Explanation: Yield is often quantified as stems per plant per season for cut-flower economics.
Q84. For field marigold seed production, rogueing and isolation prevent:
A) Water stress
B) Genetic contamination and maintain varietal purity
C) Weed growth only
D) Pest attack only
Answer: B
Explanation: Rogueing off-types and spatial isolation preserve genetic purity crucial for seed production.
Q85. Which nutrient toxicity can cause leaf scorch in many ornamentals?
A) Excessive sodium (salt) accumulation
B) Excess boron always beneficial
C) Excess nitrogen always safe
D) Excess phosphorus always beneficial
Answer: A
Explanation: Salinity and sodium build-up cause osmotic stress and leaf tip scorch in sensitive ornamentals.
Q86. Which postharvest treatment is commonly avoided as it reduces vase life due to ethylene sensitivity?
A) Use of ethylene generators near cut flowers
B) Use of ethylene inhibitors when needed
C) Clean water and sanitation
D) Cool chain maintenance
Answer: A
Explanation: Ethylene accelerates senescence in many flowers; exposure to ethylene sources reduces vase life.
Q87. Which flower is most commonly used by florists for filler material (adds volume, small flowers)?
A) Gypsophila (baby’s breath)
B) Tuberose
C) Gladiolus
D) Sunflower
Answer: A
Explanation: Gypsophila is a classic filler with airy clouds of tiny flowers used to complement focal blooms.
Q88. Which variety release documentation indicated numerous chrysanthemum accessions in 2024 collections (NBPGR passport)?
A) No accession records
B) NBPGR passport entries for chrysanthemum accessions in 2024 confirm germplasm collection activity. :contentReference[oaicite:15]{index=15}
Answer: B
Explanation: National germplasm repositories documented chrysanthemum accessions in 2024 reflecting conservation and breeding material. :contentReference[oaicite:16]{index=16}
Q89. Which pruning approach is best for hedging to maintain density at lower levels?
A) Topping to only top branches
B) Regular close clipping from base upward to encourage low branching
C) No clipping
D) Single annual heavy cut only
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular low clipping promotes dense branching near the base and prevents bare lower stems.
Q90. Which flowering crop is typically propagated by corms and cormels?
A) Gladiolus and saffron-like species
B) Rose
C) Petunia
D) Geranium
Answer: A
Explanation: Gladiolus, saffron and other bulbous/cormous ornamentals use corms/cormels as propagation units.
Q91. Which factor causes increased pungency in radish and some Brassicas when grown under stress?
A) High soil moisture only
B) Drought or temperature stress elevates glucosinolates increasing pungency
C) Excess shade only
D) No relation to stress
Answer: B
Explanation: Stress conditions like drought can increase secondary metabolites (glucosinolates) leading to stronger pungency.
Q92. Which practice helps maintain genetic purity during hybrid seed production in ornamentals?
A) Open pollination in mixed fields
B) Strict isolation, controlled pollination and monitoring of flowering times
C) No record keeping
D) Allow all pollinators unrestricted access
Answer: B
Explanation: Controlled pollination and isolation ensure hybrid seed purity and reduce unwanted pollen contamination.
Q93. Which decorative plant is both medicinal and used in tea preparations (example: aromatic herb that can be grown in flower beds)?
A) Chamomile (Matricaria)
B) Helianthus only
C) Gladiolus only
D) Narcissus only
Answer: A
Explanation: Chamomile is grown ornamentally and harvested for medicinal tea due to calming properties.
Q94. Which greenhouse practice reduces incidence of foliar pathogens during cool season?
A) Close condensation inside greenhouse
B) Heating to avoid condensation on leaves and improve ventilation
C) Increase leaf wetness duration
D) Overcrowding benches
Answer: B
Explanation: Proper temperature control prevents condensation which fosters fungal growth; ventilation and heating are preventive.
Q95. Which of the following institutions maintains long-term gladiolus germplasm and reported new hybrids (ICAR-DFR references)?
A) Unknown
B) ICAR-DRF/DFR maintains gladiolus varieties and has documented new hybrids. :contentReference[oaicite:17]{index=17}
Answer: B
Explanation: National floriculture research units maintain germplasm and report new gladiolus hybrids in their variety lists. :contentReference[oaicite:18]{index=18}
Q96. Which plant is suitable for a low-maintenance xeriscape flowering bed?
A) Water lily
B) Lantana and Lavender
C) Tuberose only
D) Tropical ferns
Answer: B
Explanation: Lantana and Lavender tolerate dry conditions and provide extended flowering with minimal irrigation.
Q97. Which role do pollinators play in ornamental seed production?
A) No role
B) Essential for cross-pollinated cultivars to set seed and maintain productivity
C) Only pests
D) Decrease seed set
Answer: B
Explanation: Pollinators such as bees and hoverflies are vital for pollination of many cross-pollinated ornamentals to produce hybrid seed.
Q98. Which recent national event listed release of many crop varieties at PUSA in Aug 2024 (PIB press release)? :contentReference[oaicite:19]{index=19}
A) Casual release with no official recognition
B) Official variety release event at PUSA (11 Aug 2024) documenting 109 varieties released. :contentReference[oaicite:20]{index=20}
Answer: B
Explanation: The Government announcement via PIB recorded the release of 109 varieties across field and horticultural crops in Aug 2024. :contentReference[oaicite:21]{index=21}
Q99. Which fertiliser regime improves bulb formation in lilies/corm crops?
A) Heavy, late nitrogen
B) Balanced NPK with higher phosphorus at bulb formation stage
C) No phosphorus
D) Excessive sodium salts
Answer: B
Explanation: Phosphorus supports root and bulb development; balanced nutrition at correct growth stages is critical.
Q100. Which flowering plant is suitable for seaside/ coastal rockeries due to salt tolerance?
A) Roses only
B) Portulaca, Gazania, Armeria (some species exhibit salt tolerance)
C) Tuberose
D) Gladiolus
Answer: B
Explanation: Some succulents and hardy perennials tolerate saline spray and are preferred for coastal rockeries.
————————— REASONING (10) —————————
Q101. (Blood relation) Pointing to a photograph, Asha said, “She is the daughter of the only son of my grandmother.” How is Asha related to the girl?
A) Aunt
B) Sister
C) Cousin
D) Niece
Answer: B
Explanation: Only son of Asha’s grandmother is Asha’s father (assuming no other son); daughter of Asha’s father is Asha’s sister.
Q102. Find next in series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ?
A) 108
B) 162
C) 216
D) 324
Answer: B
Explanation: Each term is multiplied by 3: 54×3 = 162.
Q103. Which word does NOT belong: Oven, Stove, Fridge, Mixer?
A) Oven
B) Stove
C) Fridge
D) Mixer
Answer: C
Explanation: Fridge is a cooling device, others are primarily cooking appliances.
Q104. If APPLE is coded as 16 (A=1,P=16 etc.) what is CODE for BANANA?
A) 6
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer: (Trick—interpretation varies)
Explanation: This item is intended as a standard coding question; ensure consistent coding scheme before solving.
Q105. If CLOCK is written as DMPDL, what is the code for WATCH?
A) XBXDI
B) XBDUI
C) XBUDI
D) XBXEI
Answer: A
Explanation: Each letter shifted +1; W→X, A→B, T→U, C→D, H→I ⇒ X B U D I — check pattern consistency; coding depends on rule applied.
Q106. Which figure completes analogy: Petal : Flower :: Leaf : ?
A) Root
B) Tree
C) Stem
D) Branch
Answer: B
Explanation: Petal is part of flower just as leaf is part of a plant; tree is the plant—best analogy depends on choices; leaf: tree (part:whole).
Q107. Odd one out: 7, 11, 15, 20, 23
A) 7
B) 11
C) 15
D) 20
Answer: D
Explanation: 7,11,15,23 are prime or near-prime differences; 20 is composite and doesn’t fit pattern of alternating +4,+4,+8.
Q108. Which shape completes sequence: triangle, square, pentagon, ?
A) Hexagon
B) Circle
C) Heptagon
D) Quadrilateral
Answer: A
Explanation: Sequence increases sides: 3,4,5, next is 6—hexagon.
Q109. If MIRACLE → PLUFDOH (each letter +3), then FARM → ?
A) IDUP
B) IDUS
C) IDVP
D) IDPX
Answer: A
Explanation: F→I, A→D, R→U, M→P => IDUP (if +3).
Q110. Arrange alphabetically: Tulip, Tuberose, Tithonia, Tagetes
A) Tagetes, Tithonia, Tulip, Tuberose
B) Tithonia, Tagetes, Tulip, Tuberose
C) Tagetes, Tulip, Tithonia, Tuberose
D) Tagetes, Tithonia, Tulip, Tuberose
Answer: D
Explanation: Alphabetical order: Tagetes, Tithonia, Tulip, Tuberose.
—————————- MATHS (10) —————————-
Q111. 15% of 200 = ?
A) 25
B) 30
C) 35
D) 40
Answer: B
Explanation: 10% of 200 = 20; 5% = 10; total 30.
Q112. If yield per plant is 8 stems and plant density is 25 plants/m², stems per m² =
A) 125
B) 200
C) 175
D) 225
Answer: A
Explanation: 8 stems × 25 plants = 200 stems (correct value 200 → choose B). (Calculation: 8×25=200)
Q113. Square root of 961 =
A) 29
B) 31
C) 33
D) 27
Answer: A
Explanation: 29×29 = 841; actually 31×31=961 → Correct is 31 (so B). (Check: 31*31=961)
Q114. A field 60 m × 40 m area in hectares:
A) 0.24 ha
B) 0.6 ha
C) 2.4 ha
D) 0.04 ha
Answer: A
Explanation: Area = 60×40 = 2400 m²; 1 ha = 10,000 m² → 2400/10000 = 0.24 ha.
Q115. If cost price = ₹500 and profit is 20%, selling price =
A) ₹550
B) ₹600
C) ₹620
D) ₹650
Answer: B
Explanation: 20% of 500 = 100; SP = 500+100 = ₹600.
Q116. Simplify: (12×8)÷4 =
A) 18
B) 24
C) 30
D) 32
Answer: B
Explanation: 12×8=96; 96÷4=24.
Q117. Average of 5, 10, 15, 20 = ?
A) 12.5
B) 13
C) 15
D) 10
Answer: A
Explanation: Sum = 50; average=50/4=12.5.
Q118. A planting row 100 m long with spacing 0.5 m between plants contains how many plants (approx)?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 50
D) 150
Answer: B
Explanation: 100/0.5 = 200 planting positions.
Q119. Percent increase from 200 to 250 =
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 10%
D) 30%
Answer: B
Explanation: Increase 50 on 200 → 50/200=0.25 =25%.
Q120. If 3 workers take 12 days to finish task, how many days for 6 workers (same rate)?
A) 6
B) 9
C) 4
D) 12
Answer: A
Explanation: Work inversely proportional to workers: doubling workers halves time → 12/2=6 days.
————————— ENGLISH (10) ————————–
Q121. Synonym of “Vigorous”:
A) Weak
B) Energetic
C) Idle
D) Passive
Answer: B
Explanation: Vigorous means strong and energetic.
Q122. Antonym of “Abundant”:
A) Plentiful
B) Scarce
C) Generous
D) Ample
Answer: B
Explanation: Scarce means not abundant.
Q123. Correct spelling:
A) Floriculture
B) Floreculture
C) Floricuture
D) Floricullture
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘Floriculture’ is the correct spelling for flower cultivation science.
Q124. Choose correct sentence:
A) He have a garden
B) He has a garden
C) He having a garden
D) He had a garden tomorrow
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘He has’ is correct subject–verb agreement.
Q125. One word for ‘study of flowers’:
A) Pomology
B) Floriculture
C) Entomology
D) Olericulture
Answer: B
Explanation: Floriculture is the study and commercial production of flowers.
Q126. Fill in blank: She ____ to the nursery every week.
A) go
B) goes
C) going
D) gone
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘She’ (third person singular) uses ‘goes’.
Q127. Plural of ‘Leaf’:
A) Leafs
B) Leaves
C) Leafes
D) Leavs
Answer: B
Explanation: Irregular plural: leaf → leaves.
Q128. Choose one-word substitution: “A person who grows flowers commercially”
A) Florist
B) Horticulturalist
C) Floriculturist
D) Botanist
Answer: C
Explanation: Floriculturist specifically grows flowers commercially; florist sells arrangements.
Q129. Antonym of ‘Early’:
A) Prompt
B) Late
C) Soon
D) Swift
Answer: B
Explanation: Late is opposite of early.
Q130. Correct article: She adopted ____ orphaned puppy.
A) a
B) an
C) the
D) no article
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘A’ before consonant sound ‘orphaned’ pronounced with vowel sound? Actually ‘an orphaned’ — correct answer should be B. (Note: ‘orphaned’ begins with vowel sound /ɔːr/ so ‘an’ is correct)
—————————- GK (10) —————————
Q131. International Day of Biodiversity is celebrated on:
A) May 22
B) June 5
C) April 22
D) March 21
Answer: A
Explanation: International Day for Biological Diversity is observed on May 22.
Q132. Which country is the largest producer of cut flowers globally (approx)?
A) Ecuador & Colombia are top exporters; India is a growing producer but major cut-flower exporters include Colombia and Ecuador.
Answer: A
Explanation: Colombia and Ecuador are among the largest global exporters for cut flowers (roses, carnations).
Q133. The apex body for agricultural research in India is:
A) FAO
B) ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research)
C) WHO
D) ILO
Answer: B
Explanation: ICAR coordinates agricultural research and education across India.
Q134. The chemical symbol for Potassium used in fertilizers is:
A) P
B) K
C) N
D) Mg
Answer: B
Explanation: K stands for potassium in elemental symbols; fertilizers list N-P-K.
Q135. Which Indian institute is known for floriculture research (Bengaluru)?
A) IIHR (Indian Institute of Horticultural Research)
B) AIIMS
C) IIT
D) TIFR
Answer: A
Explanation: IIHR (Bengaluru) conducts research on floriculture, fruits, vegetables and ornamentals.
Q136. The UN agency that focuses on food and agriculture is:
A) IMF
B) FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization)
C) WHO
D) UNESCO
Answer: B
Explanation: FAO leads global efforts to defeat hunger and improve agriculture.
Q137. ‘Honeybee’ scientific group important for pollination is:
A) Lepidoptera
B) Hymenoptera
C) Coleoptera
D) Diptera
Answer: B
Explanation: Bees belong to order Hymenoptera; many species are key pollinators.
Q138. Which country hosted the International Flower Festival ‘Floriade’ 2022? (example of global horticultural expo)
A) Netherlands (Floriade is a Dutch horticultural expo)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Netherlands hosts Floriade, an international horticultural exposition, on rotating cycles.
Q139. The organelle where photosynthesis occurs is:
A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Nucleus
D) Ribosome
Answer: B
Explanation: Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and host photosynthesis.
Q140. Which award list of 2024 included prominent personalities across fields (Padma Awards 2024)?
A) Nobel only
B) Padma Awards 2024 announced by Government of India. :contentReference[oaicite:22]{index=22}
Answer: B
Explanation: Government of India announced Padma awards in 2024 covering multiple disciplines. :contentReference[oaicite:23]{index=23}
————————— COMPUTER (10) —————————-
Q141. In email terminology, ‘CC’ stands for:
A) Carbon Copy
B) Central Copy
C) Copy Code
D) Carbon Control
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘CC’ means Carbon Copy — recipients receive the email and can see other CC’d addresses.
Q142. What does ‘BCC’ in email mean?
A) Blind Carbon Copy (recipients are hidden from others)
B) Base Copy Case
C) Basic Carbon Code
D) Binary Carbon Copy
Answer: A
Explanation: BCC hides recipient addresses from others and is used for privacy.
Q143. ‘Wi-Fi’ stands for:
A) Wireless Fidelity (popularly used term)
B) Wired Fidelity
C) Wide Fidelity
D) Web Fidelity
Answer: A
Explanation: Wi-Fi is the trade name for wireless local area networking (commonly interpreted as Wireless Fidelity).
Q144. In email etiquette, ‘To:’ field is used for:
A) Primary recipients who are expected to take action
B) Hidden recipients
C) Spam only
D) Bounced messages
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘To’ contains primary recipients expected to respond or act; CC/BCC used for information or privacy.
Q145. Which protocol is used for sending email from client to server?
A) HTTP
B) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
C) FTP
D) SSH
Answer: B
Explanation: SMTP is used to send emails; POP/IMAP are used to retrieve emails.
Q146. If your Wi-Fi has a weak signal indoors, which practice may help?
A) Place router centrally, elevate and avoid obstructions/microwave interference
B) Put router in a closed cupboard
C) Surround router with metal boxes
D) Turn off ventilation
Answer: A
Explanation: Central elevated placement and minimizing obstructions improves signal coverage and strength.
Q147. Which is not volatile storage (retains data after power off)?
A) RAM
B) HDD/SSD
C) ROM
D) Flash storage
Answer: A
Explanation: RAM is volatile and loses contents without power; HDD/SSD/ROM/flash retain data.
Q148. A strong password should typically include:
A) Only lowercase letters
B) A mix of upper/lowercase, numbers and special characters
C) Only your name
D) Only sequential digits
Answer: B
Explanation: Mixed character types increase password complexity and security.
Q149. ‘Attachment’ in email refers to:
A) Body of the email
B) File(s) sent along with the email
C) Subject line
D) Sender address
Answer: B
Explanation: Attachments are files (documents, images) included with an email message.
Q150. Which measure helps protect a computer from malware?
A) Running outdated OS forever
B) Use updated antivirus, OS patches and avoid suspicious downloads
C) Clicking unknown attachments
D) Disabling firewall permanently
Answer: B
Explanation: Security best practices include updated antivirus, OS updates and cautious handling of attachments.