Quiz Subjects: Horticulture

Q1. What is the color of the tag for truthful labelled seed?
A) Orange
B) Red
C) Golden yellow
D) Opal Green
Answer: D
Explanation: Truthful labelled seeds carry an Opal Green tag. This color differentiates them from certified and foundation seed tags.

Q2. Arka Rakshak is a popular variety of which crop?
A) Tomato
B) Chilli
C) Capsicum
D) Brinjal
Answer: A
Explanation: Arka Rakshak is a high-yielding tomato hybrid developed by IIHR. It is known for disease resistance and good fruit quality.

Q3. What is the botanical name of lesser yam?
A) Dioscorea esculenta
B) Dioscorea alata
C) Dioscorea rotundata
D) Dioscorea bulbifera
Answer: A
Explanation: Dioscorea esculenta is commonly known as lesser yam. It is cultivated for its edible tubers.

Q4. Which crop has the maximum hybrid area in India?
A) Musk melon
B) Cabbage
C) Tomato
D) Chilli
Answer: C
Explanation: Tomato has the largest area under hybrid cultivation in India. Hybrids provide better yield and disease resistance.

Q5. Which compound is found in curry leaf?
A) Koenigine
B) Cineole
C) Linalool
D) Limone
Answer: A
Explanation: Koenigine is a key aromatic compound found in curry leaves. It contributes to characteristic flavour and medicinal properties.

Q6. Below what temperature do okra seeds fail to germinate?
A) 12°C
B) 15°C
C) 10°C
D) 17°C
Answer: C
Explanation: Okra seeds do not germinate below 10°C. Warm temperatures are required for proper seed sprouting.

Q7. What type of bulb does an onion have?
A) Tunicate bulb
B) Flat bulb
C) Round bulb
D) Imbricate bulb
Answer: A
Explanation: Onion has a tunicate bulb covered with dry papery scales. This structure protects the fleshy inner layers.

Q8. What is the molybdenum deficiency disorder in cauliflower?
A) Leafiness
B) Pinking
C) Whiptail
D) Browning
Answer: C
Explanation: Whiptail results from molybdenum deficiency in cauliflower. Young leaves become narrow and deformed.

Q9. What is the active ingredient in Ashwagandha?
A) Serpentine
B) Digitoxin
C) Withanine
D) Saponins
Answer: C
Explanation: Withanine (withanolides) is the primary active compound in Ashwagandha. It provides medicinal and adaptogenic effects.

Q10. What causes pungency in onion?
A) Glycoalkaloids
B) Capsaicin
C) Allyl propyl disulphide
D) Cucurbitacin
Answer: C
Explanation: Allyl propyl disulphide gives onion its characteristic pungency. It is released when cells are damaged during cutting.

Q11. Which fruit provides protection against sunstroke?
A) Tomato
B) Onion
C) Watermelon
D) Cucumber
Answer: C
Explanation: Watermelon prevents sunstroke due to its high water content. It keeps the body hydrated in hot climates.

Q12. The Diamond Back Moth is a serious pest of which crop?
A) Tomato
B) Chilli
C) Onion
D) Cauliflower
Answer: D
Explanation: Diamond Back Moth severely damages cauliflower and other crucifers. Larvae feed on leaves causing economic loss.

Q13. Which part of liquorice is used medicinally?
A) Seeds
B) Shoots
C) Fruits
D) Roots
Answer: D
Explanation: Liquorice roots contain glycyrrhizin, a medicinal compound. They are used in herbal and traditional medicines.

Q14. Which flowering tree is suited for planting near ponds?
A) Callistemon lanceolatus
B) Delonix regia
C) Cassia renigera
D) Cordia sebestina
Answer: A
Explanation: Callistemon (bottle brush) thrives well near water bodies. It tolerates moisture and enhances landscape beauty.

Q15. What is the wavelength range of the visible light spectrum?
A) 700–800 nm
B) 880–900 nm
C) 200–300 nm
D) 380–700 nm
Answer: D
Explanation: Visible light ranges between 380–700 nm. This spectrum is essential for photosynthesis.

Q16. What does VRT stand for in agriculture?
A) Variable rights technology
B) Variety rate technology
C) Variable Rate Technology
D) Variety rights technology
Answer: C
Explanation: Variable Rate Technology adjusts input application rates. It improves precision farming efficiency.

Q17. Who declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits & Vegetables?
A) UN
B) FAO
C) WVC
D) WTO
Answer: B
Explanation: The FAO declared 2021 as the International Year of Fruits and Vegetables. The aim was to promote healthy diets.

Q18. Fe deficiency leads to which condition in gerbera?
A) Boron
B) Copper
C) Iron
D) Zinc
Answer: C
Explanation: Iron deficiency in gerbera causes interveinal chlorosis. Leaves turn yellow while veins remain green.

Q19. Which nutrient is immobile in plants?
A) Mg
B) K
C) Ca
D) P
Answer: C
Explanation: Calcium is immobile and cannot move from old to new tissues. Its deficiency appears in young growing parts.

Q20. At what pH is phosphorus most available to plants?
A) pH 6–7
B) pH 7–8
C) pH –5
D) pH 5–6
Answer: A
Explanation: Phosphorus availability is highest at neutral to slightly acidic pH. This enhances plant phosphorus uptake.

Q21. How is fruit firmness measured?
A) Refractometer
B) Penetrometer
C) Pycnometer
D) Tenderometer
Answer: B
Explanation: A penetrometer measures resistance to pressure. It is used to check fruit maturity and firmness.

Q22. What does the Marquis reagent test for?
A) Flavour
B) Capsanthin
C) Vitamin C
D) Pungency
Answer: D
Explanation: Marquis reagent is used to detect pungency levels. It reacts with pungent compounds.

Q23. Which Ikebana style is used for tall vases?
A) Moribana
B) Morimono
C) Nagiere
D) Rikka
Answer: C
Explanation: Nagiere is the Japanese floral style made for tall containers. It emphasizes vertical balance.

Q24. What is a common disease in crucifers, radish, and sweet potato?
A) Black rot
B) White rot
C) Club root
D) Root rot
Answer: C
Explanation: Club root affects many crucifers. It causes swelling and deformation of roots.

Q25. What is the first indigenous hybrid cabbage?
A) KGMR-
B) Goody Ball-
C) Pusa Hybrid-
D) Pride of India
Answer: C
Explanation: Pusa Hybrid is India’s first indigenous hybrid cabbage. It provides improved yield and uniformity.

Q26. Which bean is herkogamous?
A) Indian bean
B) Hyacinth bean
C) Cluster bean
D) Lima bean
Answer: D
Explanation: Lima bean exhibits herkogamy, where stigma and anthers are spatially separated. This encourages cross-pollination.

Q27. Which is a fragrant flowering shrub?
A) Mussaenda
B) Murraya exotica
C) Meynia erecta
D) Murraya koenigi
Answer: B
Explanation: Murraya exotica produces highly fragrant flowers. It is commonly grown as an ornamental shrub.

Q28. Which Chrysanthemum variety does not require pinching/staking?
A) Apsara
B) Birbal Sahini
C) Guldasta
D) Jayanthi
Answer: A
Explanation: Apsara grows compact without need for pinching or staking. This makes it easy to manage.

Q29. Elephant Foot Yam is rich in which vitamins?
A) Vitamin A & B
B) Vitamin B & C
C) Vitamin C & D
D) Only B
Answer: B
Explanation: Elephant Foot Yam contains good amounts of Vitamin B and C. These contribute to its nutritional value.

Q30. What type of fruit is brinjal?
A) Pepo
B) Siliqua
C) Berry
D) Pod
Answer: C
Explanation: Brinjal is botanically classified as a berry. It develops from a single ovary.

Q31. What is the safe solanine level per 100g of potato?
A) 12 mg
B) 8 mg
C) 16 mg
D) 20 mg
Answer: A
Explanation: Solanine levels above 12 mg/100g are unsafe. Excess solanine can cause toxicity.

Q32. What type of epistasis interaction causes heterosis?
A) Dominance × Dominance & Additive × Additive
B) Dominance × Dominance
C) Additive × Dominance
D) Additive × Additive
Answer: A
Explanation: Heterosis arises from both dominance and additive gene interactions. These enhance hybrid vigour.

Q33. What is the ideal storage temperature for low sugar potatoes?
A) 5°C
B) 10°C
C) 15°C
D) 20°C
Answer: B
Explanation: Low-sugar potatoes are best stored at 10°C. This prevents sweetening and maintains processing quality.

Q34. What is the first unit of classification in taxonomy?
A) Class
B) Kingdom
C) Family
D) Order
Answer: B
Explanation: Kingdom is the highest and first taxonomic category. It groups organisms with broad similarities.

Q35. Who is known as the father of canning?
A) Nicholas Appert
B) Saddington
C) S. Roy
D) Peter Durand
Answer: A
Explanation: Nicholas Appert invented the canning process. His method preserved food by heating and sealing.

Q36. What is the process of drying onion in the field called?
A) Drying
B) Curing
C) Winnowing
D) Disinfecting
Answer: B
Explanation: Curing dries the outer skin of onions. This improves storage life and reduces spoilage.

Q37. Which vegetable is NOT blanched before drying?
A) Cauliflower
B) Palak
C) Onion
D) Tomato
Answer: C
Explanation: Onion does not require blanching before drying. Blanching may reduce its flavour.

Q38. Which enzyme causes enzymatic browning?
A) Polyphenol oxidase
B) Pectinase
C) Phenolase
D) Cellulase
Answer: A
Explanation: Polyphenol oxidase catalyzes oxidation of phenolics. This leads to browning in fruits and vegetables.

Q39. Pungency in radish increases with what condition?
A) Delayed sowing
B) Early sowing
C) Long dry conditions
D) Maturity
Answer: C
Explanation: Dry conditions increase glucosinolate concentration. This makes radish more pungent.

Q40. What is a double cross hybrid of sweet potato?
A) Varsha & Gouri
B) Sankar
C) Varsha
D) Gouri
Answer: B
Explanation: Sankar is a double cross hybrid of sweet potato. It combines superior parental traits.

Q41. What is the male to female ratio in cole hybrid seed production?
A) 1:1
B) 5:1
C) 8:1
D) 10:1
Answer: B
Explanation: Cole crops require a 5:1 male to female ratio. This ensures adequate pollen availability.

Q42. Which organization registered the ‘VEGFAST’ trademark?
A) ICAR-IIHR
B) ICAR-IIVR
C) ICAR-CPRI
D) ICAR-IARI
Answer: A
Explanation: ICAR-IIHR registered the VEGFAST trademark. It relates to value-added vegetable products.

Q43. Where is the Indian Lac Research Institute located?
A) Rajasthan
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Jharkhand
Answer: D
Explanation: The Indian Lac Research Institute is located in Ranchi, Jharkhand. It focuses on lac cultivation and processing.

Q44. Which plant is a long day plant?
A) Tomato
B) Brinjal
C) Onion
D) Cowpea
Answer: C
Explanation: Onion requires long days to initiate bulb formation. Photoperiod strongly affects growth.

Q45. What is the process of drying cocoon to kill pupae called?
A) Crushing
B) Finishing
C) Stifling
D) Testing
Answer: C
Explanation: Stifling kills pupae inside the cocoon using heat. This prevents moth emergence and preserves silk quality.

Q46. What is a colony of bees called?
A) Family
B) Super army
C) Super organism
D) Super colony
Answer: A
Explanation: A bee colony is called a family or hive. It comprises a queen, workers, and drones.

Q47. How do seedlings grown in darkness compare to those grown in light?
A) Taller than light-grown
B) Similar to light-grown
C) Same size
D) Healthier
Answer: A
Explanation: Dark-grown seedlings show etiolation, becoming tall and weak. Light suppresses unnecessary elongation.

Q48. Where does vernalization occur in plants?
A) Shoot apex
B) Cotyledon
C) Flower bud
D) Root apex
Answer: A
Explanation: Vernalization mainly affects the shoot apex. Cold exposure induces flowering readiness.

Q49. How is sex determined in pointed gourd?
A) Heteromorphic pair (male)
B) Environment
C) Heteromorphic pair (female)
D) Soil nitrogen
Answer: A
Explanation: Pointed gourd sex determination involves a heteromorphic chromosome pair in males. This influences gender expression.

Q50. Which variety of brinjal is long and green?
A) Pant Rituraj
B) Azad Kranti
C) Arka Shirish
D) Pant Samrat
Answer: A
Explanation: Pant Rituraj produces long, green brinjals. It is preferred for its yield and quality.

Q51. When was the Biodiversity Act passed in India?
A) 1992
B) 1996
C) 2000
D) 2002
Answer: D
Explanation: The Biodiversity Act was enacted in 2002. It governs conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

Q52. Who coined the term ‘ecosystem’?
A) Tansley
B) Ernst Haeckel
C) Darwin
D) Welming
Answer: A
Explanation: Sir Arthur Tansley introduced the term ecosystem. It describes interactions between organisms and environment.

Q53. At what stage should Dendrobium be harvested?
A) 75% florets open
B) 95% florets open
C) 25% florets open
D) 50% florets open
Answer: A
Explanation: Dendrobium orchids are harvested when 75% florets open. This ensures good vase life and transport quality.

Q54. What is the system called where crops are grown with trees?
A) Silvicultural
B) Agri-silvicultural
C) Agrisilvipastoral
D) Agro-treeculture
Answer: B
Explanation: Agri-silvicultural systems integrate tree and crop cultivation. They improve productivity and sustainability.

Q55. Who introduced the Taungya system?
A) Mr. Williams
B) Dr. Brandis
C) Dr. Cheema
D) Tansley
Answer: B
Explanation: Dr. Brandis introduced the Taungya system for forest regeneration. Farmers grow crops between young trees.

Q56. What is the water percentage in leafy vegetables and melons?
A) 70–80
B) 92–95
C) 50
D) 40
Answer: B
Explanation: Leafy vegetables and melons contain 92–95% water. This makes them refreshing and hydrating.

Q57. Which fruit is known for polyembryony?
A) Guava
B) Lime
C) Jamun
D) Sapota
Answer: B
Explanation: Lime produces multiple embryos per seed. Polyembryony aids true-to-type seedling production.

Q58. Which fruit is richest in riboflavin?
A) Bael
B) Aonla
C) Jamun
D) Ber
Answer: C
Explanation: Jamun contains the highest riboflavin content among these fruits. Riboflavin supports metabolism and health.

Q59. Which fruit is richest in iron?
A) Aonla
B) Jamun
C) Dry Karonda
D) Mango
Answer: C
Explanation: Dry karonda is exceptionally rich in iron. It helps combat deficiency disorders.

Q60. What is the botanical type of date palm fruit?
A) Drupe
B) Berry
C) Sorosis
D) Pome
Answer: A
Explanation: Date palm produces drupe-type fruits. These have a single seed enclosed in fleshy tissue.

Q61. What is the origin of Carissa carandus?
A) Iraq
B) India
C) Iran
D) South America
Answer: B
Explanation: Carissa carandus (karonda) originated in India. It is used for pickles and medicinal purposes.

Q62. Which crop is affected by the shoot gall maker pest?
A) Aonla
B) Custard apple
C) Bael
D) Jamun
Answer: A
Explanation: Aonla suffers from shoot gall maker infestations. They deform shoots and reduce yield.

Q63. Which fruit crop belongs to the Tiliaceae family?
A) Phalsa
B) Jamun
C) Ber
D) Aonla
Answer: A
Explanation: Phalsa is classified under the Tiliaceae family. It is cultivated for its cooling fruits.

Q64. Paras is a variety of which fruit?
A) Ber
B) Phalsa
C) Jamun
D) Karonda
Answer: A
Explanation: Paras is a well-known ber variety. It yields medium-sized quality fruits.

Q65. NB-5 is a variety of which fruit?
A) Bael
B) Ber
C) Phalsa
D) Aonla
Answer: C
Explanation: NB-5 is a high-yielding phalsa variety. It is used for juice and fresh consumption.

Q66. Tomato leaf curl is transmitted by which insect?
A) Whitefly
B) Aphids
C) Thrips
D) Leaf hopper
Answer: A
Explanation: Whitefly transmits tomato leaf curl virus. It causes stunted growth and leaf curling.

Q67. Which is a late variety of ber?
A) Umran
B) Gola
C) Elaichi
D) Mehrun
Answer: A
Explanation: Umran is a late-maturing ber variety. It is widely cultivated for its fruit quality.

Q68. Which potato variety is suitable for processing?
A) Kufri Deva
B) Kufri Chipsona-
C) Kufri Jawahar
D) Kufri Ashoka
Answer: B
Explanation: Chipsona varieties have low sugar and high dry matter. This makes them suitable for chips and fries.

Q69. What caused the Irish famine?
A) Late blight (Potato)
B) Brown leaf spot
C) Early blight
D) Blast
Answer: A
Explanation: The Irish famine resulted from potato late blight. It devastated crops leading to massive starvation.

Q70. Which fruit crop is gynodioecious?
A) Grape
B) Kokam
C) Fig
D) Bael
Answer: C
Explanation: Fig exhibits gynodioecy, having female and hermaphrodite plants. This affects pollination biology.

Q71. Which planting system accommodates the maximum number of plants?
A) Triangular
B) Hexagonal
C) Square
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Hexagonal system places plants closest together. It fits 15% more plants compared to square planting.

Q72. How is ET (evapotranspiration) measured?
A) Tensiometer
B) Neutron moisture meter
C) Lysimeter
D) Irrometer
Answer: C
Explanation: A lysimeter accurately measures evapotranspiration. It evaluates crop water requirements.

Q73. Methionine is a precursor of which compound?
A) Protein
B) Ethylene
C) Vitamin
D) IAA
Answer: B
Explanation: Methionine is the biochemical precursor of ethylene. It initiates ethylene biosynthesis via ACC.

Q74. BER in tomato and bitter pit in apple are due to the deficiency of which nutrient?
A) Calcium deficiency
B) Molybdenum deficiency
C) Boron deficiency
D) Magnesium deficiency
Answer: A
Explanation: Both disorders result from calcium deficiency. It weakens cell walls and causes tissue breakdown.

Q75. Which fruit is effective for diabetes?
A) Syzygium cumini
B) Carissa carandas
C) Grewia subinequalis
D) Averrhoa carambola
Answer: A
Explanation: Jamun helps regulate blood sugar levels. Its seeds contain anti-diabetic compounds.

Q76. Which garden style is known as ‘nature in miniature’?
A) Japanese
B) French
C) Italian
D) English
Answer: A
Explanation: Japanese gardens replicate natural landscapes in miniature. They emphasize balance and simplicity.

Q77. Mridula pomegranate is a hybrid of which varieties?
A) Alandi × Jyoti
B) Ganesh × Gul-e-Shah Red
C) Gul-e-Shah Red × Ruby
D) Yercaud × Gul-e-Shah Red
Answer: C
Explanation: Mridula is a hybrid between Gul-e-Shah Red and Ruby. It combines good colour and taste.

Q78. Which fruit belongs to the Cactaceae family?
A) Aonla
B) Bael
C) Jamun
D) Dragon fruit
Answer: D
Explanation: Dragon fruit (pitaya) belongs to Cactaceae. It thrives in arid and semi-arid climates.

Q79. Where is the first organic farming university located?
A) Gujarat
B) Karnataka
C) Sikkim
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: C
Explanation: Sikkim hosts India’s first organic farming university. The state is fully organic.

Q80. What is a moon cactus?
A) A grafted cactus
B) Crescent shaped
C) Round shaped
D) Night blooming cactus
Answer: A
Explanation: Moon cactus is created by grafting two cactus species. The colourful top cannot survive alone.

Q81. What is Brahma Kamal scientifically known as?
A) Saussurea obvallata
B) Hylocereus undatus
C) Epiphyllum oxypetalum
D) Hylocereus megalanthus
Answer: A
Explanation: Saussurea obvallata is commonly known as Brahma Kamal. It is a rare Himalayan flower.

Q82. Who coined the term ‘bio-aesthetic planning’?
A) Prof. Thomas Chandeller
B) Prof. Lancelot Hogben
C) Prof. Rachel Scott
D) Prof. Danny Green
Answer: B
Explanation: Prof. Hogben coined the term promoting greenery in urban planning. It integrates ecology with aesthetics.

Q83. Which is not a Japanese garden type?
A) Rock garden
B) Passage garden
C) Tea garden
D) Sand garden
Answer: B
Explanation: Passage garden is not a recognized Japanese garden type. Others are traditional Japanese styles.

Q84. What are orchids grown on trees called?
A) Terrestrial
B) Lithophytes
C) Saprophytes
D) Epiphytes
Answer: D
Explanation: Epiphytic orchids grow on tree surfaces. They absorb moisture from air and rain.

Q85. Which chemicals induce male sterility?
A) Growth retardants
B) Mutagens
C) Gametocides
D) Herbicide
Answer: C
Explanation: Gametocides chemically induce male sterility. They help in hybrid seed production.

Q86. What is enology related to?
A) Apple
B) Cashew
C) Grape
D) Pear
Answer: C
Explanation: Enology is the science of wine and grape production. It covers viticulture and winemaking.

Q87. Which insect has rasping and sucking mouthparts?
A) Aphid
B) Thrips
C) Bug
D) Butterfly
Answer: B
Explanation: Thrips damage plants by rasping and sucking cell sap. They cause silvering and distortion.

Q88. When is International Forest Day celebrated?
A) 21 March
B) 5 June
C) 16 September
D) 21 December
Answer: A
Explanation: International Forest Day is observed on 21 March. It promotes awareness on forest conservation.

Q89. Who proposed the double helix model of DNA?
A) Embden & Meyerhof
B) Beadle & Tatum
C) Watson & Crick
D) Calvin & Benson
Answer: C
Explanation: Watson and Crick proposed the double helix DNA structure. This discovery revolutionized genetics.

Q90. Which organization governs international plant introduction?
A) NBPGR
B) IPGRI
C) NSC
D) Biodiversity International
Answer: B
Explanation: IPGRI manages global plant genetic resources. It facilitates safe introduction and conservation.

Q91. What is the best method for oligogenic transfer?
A) Pedigree breeding
B) Bulk breeding
C) Pureline breeding
D) Backcross breeding
Answer: D
Explanation: Backcross breeding effectively transfers few major genes. It retains desirable traits of the recurrent parent.

Q92. What is an essential feature of polyethylene film?
A) UV stabilization
B) Clarity
C) Elasticity
D) Flexibility
Answer: A
Explanation: UV stabilization prevents degradation of polyethylene films. It extends film life under sunlight.

Q93. What is the comparison of hybrid vs best parent called?
A) High parent heterosis
B) Low parent heterosis
C) Mid parent heterosis
D) Average heterosis
Answer: A
Explanation: High parent heterosis compares hybrid performance with the best parent. It reflects superior vigour.

Q94. Where does the pollen mother cell develop?
A) Anther
B) Endosperm
C) Embryo sac
D) Ovary
Answer: A
Explanation: Pollen mother cells develop inside anther locules. They undergo meiosis to form pollen grains.

Q95. What is the term for past prices & arrivals data?
A) Market intelligence
B) Market news
C) Market efficiency
D) Market function
Answer: A
Explanation: Market intelligence includes past market trends. It helps predict future prices and demand.

Q96. What is the permissible genetic impurity in certified seeds?
A) 0.5%
B) 0.1%
C) 0.2%
D) 0.0%
Answer: A
Explanation: Certified seeds allow up to 0.5% genetic impurity. This maintains quality while enabling large-scale production.

Q97. What is the proliferative mass of cells in tissue culture called?
A) Tissue culture
B) Protoplast culture
C) Cell suspension culture
D) Callus culture
Answer: D
Explanation: Callus is an unorganized mass of proliferating cells. It forms during tissue culture from explants.

Q98. When is water most available to plants?
A) Between FC and PWP
B) Near PWP
C) At PWP
D) At temporary wilting point
Answer: A
Explanation: Water availability is highest between field capacity (FC) and permanent wilting point (PWP). Plants absorb water easily in this range.

Q99. Which indoor plant is recommended for bedroom air quality?
A) Sansevieria
B) Eryrine
C) Croton
D) Dieffenbachia
Answer: A
Explanation: Sansevieria (snake plant) releases oxygen at night. It improves indoor air quality effectively.

Q100. Which orchid type is monopodial?
A) Vanda
B) Oncidium
C) Dendrobium
D) Cattleya
Answer: A
Explanation: Vanda orchids grow in a single vertical axis, showing monopodial growth. They produce aerial roots and large flowers.

This quizQuiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. The two Bills passed by Parliament in 2020, third bill was:
A) Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill 2020
B) National Food Security Act, 2013
C) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
D) Critical Analysis of Farm Bill, 2020
Answer: A
Explanation: The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill 2020 was the third bill passed.

Q2. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was launched under which Five Year Plan?
A) 8th Five year plan
B) 9th Five year plan
C) 10th Five year plan
D) 11th Five year plan
Answer: C
Explanation: NHM was launched during the 10th Five Year Plan.

Q3. Which fruit crop has the highest production in India?
A) Mango
B) Banana
C) Citrus
D) Papaya
Answer: B
Explanation: Banana is the fruit crop with the highest production in India.

Q4. Who is known as the Father of the Golden Revolution?
A) K. L. Chadha
B) R. S. Paroda
C) Nirpakh Tuteja
D) M. S. Swaminathan
Answer: A
Explanation: K. L. Chadha is recognized as the Father of the Golden Revolution.

Q5. Which biofortified high zinc rice was released for Gujarat & Maharashtra in 2020?
A) CR Dhan 308
B) CR Dhan 314
C) CR Dhan 315
D) CR Dhan 330
Answer: C
Explanation: CR Dhan 315 is the biofortified high zinc rice released in 2020.

Q6. What is the colouring compound in turmeric?
A) Curcumin
B) Quercetin
C) Coumarin
D) Tannin
Answer: A
Explanation: Curcumin is the compound responsible for turmeric’s yellow color.

Q7. Who is considered the Father of Precision Farming?
A) Pierre C. Robert
B) Henry Smith
C) Robert Alfred
D) Jony Parker
Answer: A
Explanation: Pierre C. Robert is known as the Father of Precision Farming.

Q8. Which state launched the ANKUR scheme?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Maharashtra
D) Rajasthan
Answer: A
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh launched the ANKUR scheme.

Q9. In vitro shoot tip grafting in citrus produces what type of plants?
A) Salt tolerant plants
B) Virus free plants
C) Dwarf plants
D) Tall plants
Answer: B
Explanation: In vitro shoot tip grafting in citrus is used to produce virus-free plants.

Q10. Who coined the term mutation?
A) Hugo de Vries
B) Muller
C) Morgan
D) Stadler
Answer: A
Explanation: Hugo de Vries coined the term mutation.

Q11. What is the source of the dwarfing gene in rice?
A) Dee-geo-woo-gen
B) Tom-thumb
C) Tilth-23
D) Norin-10
Answer: A
Explanation: Dee-geo-woo-gen is the source of the dwarfing gene in rice.

Q12. What is the viability period of a mango seed?
A) – weeks
B) 6–8 weeks
C) –5 weeks
D) 9–10 weeks
Answer: B
Explanation: Mango seeds have a viability of 6–8 weeks.

Q13. Which citrus is monoembryonic?
A) Mandarin
B) Acid lime
C) Grapefruit
D) Citron
Answer: D
Explanation: Citron is a monoembryonic citrus.

Q14. What is the UAE commodity platform called?
A) AGRIOTA
B) AGROTA
C) BIOTA
D) AGROIND
Answer: A
Explanation: AGRIOTA is the commodity platform in the UAE.

Q15. What is the edible portion of litchi?
A) Fleshy receptacle
B) Fleshy peduncle
C) Fleshy aril
D) Fleshy thalamus
Answer: C
Explanation: The fleshy aril is the edible portion of litchi.

Q16. Which is an annual flower climber?
A) Petrea
B) Clematis
C) Petunia
D) Star ipomea
Answer: D
Explanation: Star ipomea is an annual flower climber.

Q17. Which is a highly dwarf guava rootstock?
A) P. pumilum
B) P. friedrichsthalianum
C) Chrysophyllum lanceolatum
D) P. molle
Answer: A
Explanation: P. pumilum is used as a highly dwarf guava rootstock.

Q18. What is the cluster-based organic farming programme?
A) RKVY
B) NPOF
C) PKVY
D) NHM
Answer: C
Explanation: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is the cluster-based organic farming programme.

Q19. Who first introduced nanotechnology?
A) Richard Feynman
B) Norio Taniguchi
C) Richard Flemming
D) Richard Williams
Answer: A
Explanation: Richard Feynman is credited with first introducing nanotechnology.

Q20. Which plant has antiviral properties?
A) Fenugreek
B) Chlorophytum
C) Licorice
D) Thyme
Answer: D
Explanation: Thyme is known for its antiviral properties.

Q21. Which is a coloured seedless grape variety?
A) Thompson Seedless
B) Sonaka
C) Tas-A-Ganesh
D) Sharad Seedless
Answer: D
Explanation: Sharad Seedless is a coloured seedless grape variety.

Q22. Which flower belongs to the Asteraceae family?
A) Dianthus
B) Golden rod
C) Geranium
D) Gypsophila
Answer: B
Explanation: Golden rod is a member of the Asteraceae family.

Q23. What is the underground portion of a banana called?
A) Tuber
B) Rhizome
C) Corm
D) Pseudostem
Answer: B
Explanation: The underground portion of a banana is called a rhizome.

Q24. What is the fruit type of pulses?
A) Ear
B) Peg
C) Pod
D) Siliqua
Answer: C
Explanation: Pulses have a fruit type known as a pod.

Q25. Which mango variety commonly has spongy tissue?
A) Kesar
B) Alphonso
C) Totapuri
D) Jamadar
Answer: B
Explanation: Alphonso mangoes are known for having spongy tissue.

Q26. What gives lemon its aroma?
A) Citral
B) Isopropyl
C) Isopentol
D) Valencene
Answer: A
Explanation: Citral is responsible for the aroma of lemon.

Q27. Seedlessness in banana is due to what process?
A) Vegetative parthenocarpy
B) Stimulative parthenocarpy
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Active parthenocarpy
Answer: A
Explanation: Seedlessness in bananas is due to vegetative parthenocarpy.

Q28. What is the practice of growing two or more crops in sequence called?
A) Relay cropping
B) Ratooning
C) Sequence cropping
D) Alley cropping
Answer: C
Explanation: Sequence cropping involves growing two or more crops in sequence.

Q29. What is the vector for citrus greening?
A) Aphids
B) Jassid
C) Whitefly
D) Citrus psylla
Answer: D
Explanation: Citrus psylla is the vector for citrus greening.

Q30. What practice is used to obtain large flowers?
A) Disbudding
B) Pruning
C) Training
D) Staking
Answer: A
Explanation: Disbudding is practiced to obtain larger flowers.

Q31. Which component is NOT part of a laser leveler?
A) Harrow
B) 4-wheel tractor
C) Laser transmitter
D) Drag bucket
Answer: A
Explanation: A harrow is not a component of a laser leveler.

Q32. What is the ‘Flame of the Forest’ scientifically known as?
A) Butea monosperma
B) Delonix regia
C) Cordia sebestina
D) Plumeria
Answer: A
Explanation: Butea monosperma is commonly known as the ‘Flame of the Forest’.

Q33. Which seed type is recalcitrant?
A) Mango
B) Papaya
C) Custard apple
D) Guava
Answer: A
Explanation: Mango seeds are recalcitrant, meaning they cannot withstand drying.

Q34. What is half-frozen rain called?
A) Sleet
B) Rain
C) Drizzle
D) Dew
Answer: A
Explanation: Sleet is the term for half-frozen rain.

Q35. Which pomegranate variety revolutionized cultivation?
A) Kandhari
B) Bassein Seedless
C) Ganesh
D) Jyothi
Answer: C
Explanation: The Ganesh variety revolutionized pomegranate cultivation.

Q36. Which tree has blue flowers?
A) Delonix regia
B) Erythrina indica
C) Millingtonia hortensis
D) Jacaranda mimosaefolia
Answer: D
Explanation: Jacaranda mimosaefolia is known for its blue flowers.

Q37. What is a masking gene called?
A) Modifier
B) Enhancer
C) Epistatic
D) Hypostatic
Answer: C
Explanation: An epistatic gene can mask the expression of other genes.

Q38. What is meristem culture involving shoot tips called?
A) Embryo culture
B) Protoplast culture
C) Cell culture
D) Organ culture
Answer: D
Explanation: Organ culture involves the use of shoot tips in meristem culture.

Q39. What are synthetic seeds?
A) Artificial seeds
B) Somatic embryos encapsulated
C) Genetically modified seeds
D) Modified seeds
Answer: B
Explanation: Synthetic seeds are somatic embryos encapsulated in a protective coating.

Q40. Which chemical is used for controlling vegetative growth?
A) CCC
B) Alar
C) Paclobutrazol
D) MCP
Answer: C
Explanation: Paclobutrazol is used to control vegetative growth in plants.

Q41. Which monsoon flowering annual is known for its vibrant blooms?
A) Balsam
B) Phlox
C) Petunia
D) Geranium
Answer: A
Explanation: Balsam is a monsoon flowering annual with vibrant blooms.

Q42. Which tree has a high Pollution Tolerance Index?
A) Eucalyptus
B) Delonix regia
C) Azadirachta indica
D) Australian acacia
Answer: C
Explanation: Azadirachta indica, or neem, has a high Pollution Tolerance Index.

Q43. Which practice is used to obtain bigger fruits?
A) Pruning
B) Bending
C) Thinning
D) Staking
Answer: C
Explanation: Thinning is used to obtain bigger fruits by reducing competition.

Q44. What is Mohs scale number 10?
A) Talc
B) Gypsum
C) Carborundum
D) Diamond
Answer: D
Explanation: Diamond is rated as 10 on the Mohs scale of hardness.

Q45. Which biofortified pomegranate variety is known for its nutritional benefits?
A) Ganesh
B) Solapur Lal
C) Super Bhagava
D) Mridula
Answer: C
Explanation: Super Bhagava is a biofortified pomegranate variety.

Q46. What is the art of shaping plants into animals called?
A) Training
B) Trophy
C) Topiary
D) Arbour
Answer: C
Explanation: Topiary is the art of shaping plants into animals and other forms.

Q47. What is the tall spindle system characterized by?
A) One permanent tier
B) No permanent tier
C) Two tiers
D) Three tiers
Answer: B
Explanation: The tall spindle system has no permanent tier.

Q48. Who developed drip irrigation?
A) Simcha Blass
B) Penmann
C) Jackson
D) Thornthwaite
Answer: A
Explanation: Simcha Blass is credited with developing drip irrigation.

Q49. Which is a common grape rootstock?
A) Kurukkan
B) Dogridge
C) Muvandan
D) Pink Selection
Answer: B
Explanation: Dogridge is a commonly used grape rootstock.

Q50. Which crop cannot be propagated vegetatively?
A) Coconut
B) Mango
C) Pomegranate
D) Date palm
Answer: D
Explanation: Date palm cannot be propagated vegetatively.

Q51. What type of process is photosynthesis?
A) Exergonic
B) Exothermic
C) Anabolic
D) Catabolic
Answer: C
Explanation: Photosynthesis is an anabolic process, building complex molecules.

Q52. Topping or hedging increases yield in which crop?
A) Sapota
B) Grape
C) Guava
D) Ber
Answer: D
Explanation: Topping or hedging is beneficial for increasing yield in ber.

Q53. Which plant growth regulator causes stomatal closure?
A) Auxins
B) Gibberellins
C) Cytokinins
D) Abscisic Acid
Answer: D
Explanation: Abscisic Acid (ABA) induces stomatal closure in plants.

Q54. Sonpari hybrid is a cross between which mango varieties?
A) Alphonso × Mallika
B) Alphonso × Baneshan
C) Neelum × Alphonso
D) Alphonso × Dasheri
Answer: A
Explanation: Sonpari is a hybrid of Alphonso and Mallika.

Q55. When does Ambebahar ripening occur?
A) Jan–Feb
B) Apr–May
C) Jul–Aug
D) Oct–Nov
Answer: B
Explanation: Ambebahar ripening occurs in April to May.

Q56. Which papaya variety is suitable for high density planting?
A) Red Lady
B) Co-
C) Pusa Nanha
D) Pusa Lal
Answer: A
Explanation: Red Lady is suitable for high density planting.

Q57. How many pineapple plants per hectare are used in high-density planting?
A) 23000
B) 63000
C) 83000
D) 33000
Answer: C
Explanation: 83000 pineapple plants per hectare are used in high-density planting.

Q58. What training system is used for cashew?
A) Modified central leader
B) Central leader
C) Slender spindle
D) Spindle bush
Answer: A
Explanation: The modified central leader system is used for training cashew trees.

Q59. Where is the Directorate of Arecanut and Spices Development (DASD) located?
A) Calcutta
B) Kottayam
C) Cochin
D) Calicut
Answer: B
Explanation: DASD is located in Kottayam.

Q60. What does modification of the environment refer to in agriculture?
A) Protected cultivation
B) Sustainable agriculture
C) Hydroponic
D) Aeroponics
Answer: A
Explanation: Protected cultivation involves modifying the environment for crop growth.

Q61. What is the first opening of flowers called?
A) Anthesis
B) Emasculation
C) Pollination
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Anthesis is the term for the first opening of flowers.

Q62. What is the result of crossing F₁ with a parent?
A) Backcross
B) Top cross
C) Test cross
D) Double top cross
Answer: A
Explanation: Crossing F₁ with a parent produces a backcross.

Q63. In which type of variety is heterosis fully exploited?
A) Hybrid
B) Synthetic variety
C) Pureline
D) Composite
Answer: A
Explanation: Heterosis is fully exploited in hybrid varieties.

Q64. Pureline selection is applicable in which type of crops?
A) Self-pollinated crops
B) Vegetatively propagated
C) Cross-pollinated
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Pureline selection is used in self-pollinated crops.

Q65. Which is an ornamental foliage climber?
A) Cordyline
B) Monstera
C) Spathiphyllum
D) Thunbergia
Answer: B
Explanation: Monstera is known as an ornamental foliage climber.

Q66. Which breeding method is used for transferring oligogenic characters?
A) Bulk
B) Pedigree
C) Backcross
D) SSD
Answer: C
Explanation: Backcrossing is used for transferring oligogenic characters.

Q67. Mass selection is based on what?
A) Genotypes
B) Progeny tests
C) Phenotypes
D) Test crosses
Answer: C
Explanation: Mass selection is based on phenotypes.

Q68. What is a polyploid from the same species called?
A) Autopolyploid
B) Heteroplidy
C) Allopolyploid
D) Both A & B
Answer: A
Explanation: An autopolyploid is a polyploid from the same species.

Q69. Which fruit is known as butter fruit?
A) Avocado
B) Apricot
C) Cashew
D) Guava
Answer: A
Explanation: Avocado is commonly referred to as butter fruit.

Q70. What type of beam does a laser leveller use?
A) UV
B) Infrared
C) Microwave
D) X-rays
Answer: B
Explanation: A laser leveller uses an infrared beam.

Q71. What does intervarietal mean?
A) Interspecific
B) Distant
C) Intraspecific
D) Intergeneric
Answer: C
Explanation: Intervarietal refers to intraspecific, meaning within the same species.

Q72. What type of fruit is a guava?
A) Drupe
B) Sorosis
C) Berry
D) Pome
Answer: C
Explanation: Guava is classified as a berry.

Q73. What type of inflorescence does a fig have?
A) Catkin
B) Hypanthodium
C) Raceme
D) Panicle
Answer: B
Explanation: Fig has a hypanthodium type of inflorescence.

Q74. What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?
A) Amino acids
B) Nucleoproteins
C) Nucleotides
D) Nucleosides
Answer: C
Explanation: Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids.

Q75. What is the yellow pigment in papaya called?
A) Anthocyanin
B) Xanthophyll
C) Caricaxanthin
D) Carotene
Answer: C
Explanation: Caricaxanthin is the yellow pigment found in papaya.

Q76. Which enzyme forms the RNA primer during DNA replication?
A) Isomerase
B) Nuclease
C) Replicase
D) Primase
Answer: D
Explanation: Primase is the enzyme that forms the RNA primer.

Q77. What is the active ingredient of bael?
A) Marmelosin
B) Cucurbitacin
C) Galactomannan
D) Quercetin
Answer: A
Explanation: Marmelosin is the active ingredient of bael.

Q78. Which cluster bean variety was developed by AAU?
A) Anand Roma
B) Anand Bahar
C) Anand Cluster bean
D) Anand Long
Answer: C
Explanation: Anand Cluster bean is a variety developed by AAU.

Q79. What is the process of protein synthesis called?
A) Translocation
B) Transcription
C) Translation
D) Transduction
Answer: C
Explanation: Translation is the process of protein synthesis.

Q80. Which film is used for efficient light distribution in agriculture?
A) Diffused UV stabilised LDPE
B) UV stabilised LDPE
C) Clear UV stabilised LDPE
D) Polycarbonate film
Answer: A
Explanation: Diffused UV stabilised LDPE film is used for efficient light distribution.

Q81. What is the scientific name of the Cannonball tree?
A) Couroupita guianensis
B) Alstonia scholaris
C) Plumeria
D) Peltophorum
Answer: A
Explanation: Couroupita guianensis is the scientific name of the Cannonball tree.

Q82. What is the flower arrangement of honor called?
A) Corsage
B) Buttonaire
C) Gajra
D) Wreath
Answer: D
Explanation: A wreath is a flower arrangement of honor.

Q83. Which tree is known as the ‘Flame of the Forest’?
A) Ceiba pentandra
B) Delonix regia
C) Butea monosperma
D) Spathodea
Answer: C
Explanation: Butea monosperma is known as the ‘Flame of the Forest’.

Q84. Which university developed the GG- variety?
A) JAU
B) SDAU
C) AAU
D) NAU
Answer: C
Explanation: The GG- variety was developed by AAU.

Q85. How is gladiolus propagated?
A) Stem cutting
B) Suckers
C) Tubers
D) Corms
Answer: D
Explanation: Gladiolus is propagated using corms.

Q86. Where is the international flower market located?
A) India
B) China
C) Australia
D) Aalsmeer, Netherlands
Answer: D
Explanation: The international flower market is located in Aalsmeer, Netherlands.

Q87. What is Pusa Beta Kesari?
A) Carrot
B) Beetroot
C) Cauliflower
D) Cabbage
Answer: B
Explanation: Pusa Beta Kesari is a variety of beetroot.

Q88. Who was a famous rosarian and the first Director General of ICAR?
A) Dr Swaminathan
B) Guillot
C) Dr K. L. Chadha
D) Dr B. P. Pal
Answer: D
Explanation: Dr B. P. Pal was a famous rosarian and the first DG of ICAR.

Q89. Which cucumber variety is suitable for polyhouse cultivation?
A) Parthenocarpic
B) Self sterile
C) Cross-pollinated
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Parthenocarpic cucumber varieties are suitable for polyhouse cultivation.

Q90. Who created the Rock Garden in Chandigarh?
A) Nek Chand
B) Dhyan Chand
C) William Kent
D) Williams
Answer: A
Explanation: Nek Chand created the famous Rock Garden in Chandigarh.

Q91. Which lawn grass requires the least mowing?
A) Korean grass
B) Kentucky blue grass
C) Bermuda grass
D) Rye grass
Answer: A
Explanation: Korean grass requires the least mowing.

Q92. Which annual is used as a cut flower?
A) Statice
B) Chrysanthemum
C) Golden rod
D) Gladiolus
Answer: A
Explanation: Statice is an annual used as a cut flower.

Q93. Which antioxidant is found in onions?
A) Phenols
B) Carotene
C) Xanthophyll
D) Quercetin
Answer: D
Explanation: Quercetin is an antioxidant found in onions.

Q94. What is the national flower of England?
A) England
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) Pakistan
Answer: A
Explanation: The national flower of England is the Tudor Rose.

Q95. What is AVRDC now known as?
A) Asian Vegetable Centre
B) World Vegetable Centre
C) World Cole Crops Centre
D) Indian Vegetable Centre
Answer: B
Explanation: AVRDC is now known as the World Vegetable Centre.

Q96. What is the edible part of a tomato?
A) Pericarp & placenta
B) Mesocarp
C) Succulent thalamus
D) Seed coat
Answer: A
Explanation: The pericarp and placenta are the edible parts of a tomato.

Q97. Which seeds are negatively photoblastic?
A) Strawberry
B) Mango
C) Tomato
D) Onion
Answer: C
Explanation: Tomato seeds are negatively photoblastic, meaning they germinate in darkness.

Q98. To which disease is Kufri Badshah resistant?
A) Anthracnose
B) Late blight
C) Wart
D) Scab
Answer: D
Explanation: Kufri Badshah is resistant to scab.

Q99. Chrysanthemum is mostly what type of plant?
A) Short day
B) Day neutral
C) Long day
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Chrysanthemum is mostly a short day plant.

Q100. What is an undesirable content in table potatoes?
A) High starch
B) High sugar
C) High mineral
D) High protein
Answer: B
Explanation: High sugar content is undesirable in table potatoes.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. ‘Bharat Sundri’ is a variety of:
A) Hollyhock
B) Hibiscus
C) Gladiolus
D) Coreopsis
Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Bharat Sundri’ is a known variety of Gladiolus.

Q2. ‘Wintering’ is a common practice followed in the cultivation of:
A) Lotus
B) Gurhal
C) Dahlia
D) Rose
Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Wintering’ is a practice used in Dahlia cultivation to protect the tubers.

Q3. ‘Rashtrapati Bhawan Garden’, New Delhi was designed by:
A) Shah Jahan
B) Lord Curzon
C) Sir Edwin Lutyens
D) Robinson
Answer: C
Explanation: Sir Edwin Lutyens was the architect behind the Rashtrapati Bhawan Garden.

Q4. pH value of sphagnum moss is around:
A) 4.0
B) 5.5
C) 6.5
D) 7.0
Answer: A
Explanation: Sphagnum moss typically has an acidic pH around 4.0.

Q5. ‘Topple disease’ of Gladiolus is caused due to deficiency of:
A) Cu
B) Mn
C) B
D) Ca
Answer: D
Explanation: Calcium deficiency leads to ‘Topple disease’ in Gladiolus.

Q6. Calibration of turf fertilizer spreader depends upon:
A) Density of turf
B) Size of fertilizer particles
C) Active ingredient of fertilizer
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: All listed factors affect the calibration of a turf fertilizer spreader.

Q7. Flowers of tuberose are pure white in:
A) Single cultivar
B) Double cultivar
C) Semi-double cultivar
D) Variegated cultivar
Answer: A
Explanation: The single cultivar of tuberose produces pure white flowers.

Q8. Most commonly grown loose flower in India is:
A) Rose
B) Jasmine
C) Marigold
D) Chrysanthemum
Answer: C
Explanation: Marigold is widely grown as a loose flower in India.

Q9. Pulvinus in ‘Touch-me-not’ plant plays a role in:
A) Leaf movement
B) Leaf fall
C) Transpiration
D) Photosynthesis
Answer: A
Explanation: The pulvinus is responsible for the rapid leaf movements in the ‘Touch-me-not’ plant.

Q10. Number of petals of lotus flower in G20 logo is:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: C
Explanation: The G20 logo features a lotus with 7 petals.

Q11. Important part of Mughal Gardens:
A) Sand
B) Fish
C) Stone lanterns
D) Baradari
Answer: D
Explanation: Baradari is a significant architectural feature in Mughal Gardens.

Q12. Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden & Research Institute is located at:
A) Maharashtra
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
Explanation: The institute is situated in Kerala.

Q13. Stem pitting in citrus is related with:
A) Greening virus
B) Yellowing virus
C) Tristeza virus
D) All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Citrus Tristeza virus is associated with stem pitting.

Q14. Bordeaux paste is used for:
A) Treating pruned shoot ends
B) Control of rats
C) Nematode treatment
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Bordeaux paste is applied to pruned shoot ends to prevent infections.

Q15. Jasmine species popular for oil extraction:
A) J. auriculatum
B) J. sambac
C) J. calophyllum
D) J. humile
Answer: B
Explanation: J. sambac is widely used for its fragrant oil.

Q16. Coleus, carnation, dahlia, chrysanthemum are propagated through:
A) Seed
B) Layering
C) Cutting
D) Budding
Answer: C
Explanation: These plants are commonly propagated through cuttings.

Q17. A. radiobacter strain K-1026 is used for control of:
A) Crown gall
B) Die back
C) Rust
D) Powdery mildew
Answer: A
Explanation: A. radiobacter strain K-1026 is effective against crown gall.

Q18. Which is NOT a character of cacti?
A) All perennial
B) Fruit is one-celled berry
C) All dicots
D) Petals arise from top of ovary
Answer: B
Explanation: Cacti generally do not produce one-celled berries.

Q19. Desert rose is:
A) Adenium
B) Aglalia
C) Aerva
D) Aesculus
Answer: A
Explanation: Adenium is commonly known as the desert rose.

Q20. Fruit crop tolerant to alkaline soil (pH –):
A) Bael
B) Fig
C) Strawberry
D) Olive
Answer: D
Explanation: Olive trees can tolerate alkaline soil conditions.

Q21. In aonla, fruits become apparent after pre-monsoon rains because:
A) Embryo protection
B) Minimize fruit growth
C) Reduce bloom-to-maturity days
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Pre-monsoon rains help in embryo protection in aonla.

Q22. Detrimental effect of host plant on insect biology:
A) Resistance
B) Tolerance
C) Antibiosis
D) Non-preference
Answer: C
Explanation: Antibiosis refers to the negative effect on insect biology due to plant compounds.

Q23. Pomegranate cv. Bhagwa P₂O₅ dose recommended (South Saurashtra):
A) 100 g
B) 250 g
C) 500 g
D) 750 g
Answer: C
Explanation: A dose of 500 g P₂O₅ is recommended for Bhagwa pomegranates.

Q24. Loss of N as NH₃ gas is:
A) Volatilization
B) Denitrification
C) Immobilization
D) Mineralization
Answer: A
Explanation: Volatilization refers to the loss of nitrogen as ammonia gas.

Q25. Primary objective of factory landscape trees:
A) Tourist attraction
B) Year-round flowering
C) Shade for rest
D) Arrest dust, smoke, reduce noise
Answer: D
Explanation: Trees in factory landscapes primarily help in reducing pollution.

Q26. Dull green leaves with bronzing are a symptom of:
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorus
C) Potassium
D) Calcium
Answer: C
Explanation: Potassium deficiency often causes bronzing of leaves.

Q27. Molybdenum deficiency is common in:
A) Acid soils
B) Alkaline soils
C) Neutral soils
D) Strong alkaline soils
Answer: A
Explanation: Acidic soils often show molybdenum deficiency.

Q28. Hen and Chicken disorder of grapes is linked with:
A) K deficiency
B) B deficiency
C) N toxicity
D) P toxicity
Answer: B
Explanation: Boron deficiency is associated with the Hen and Chicken disorder in grapes.

Q29. Vector of citrus greening virus:
A) Apis mellifera
B) Dacus dorsalis
C) Diaphorina citri
D) Papilio demolish
Answer: C
Explanation: Diaphorina citri is the vector for the citrus greening virus.

Q30. High analysis fertilizer contains:
A) >15% nutrient
B) 25%
C) <25%
D) 50%
Answer: C
Explanation: High analysis fertilizers typically contain less than 25% nutrients.

Q31. Pollen tube germination is enhanced by:
A) Nitrogen
B) Zinc
C) Boron
D) Iron
Answer: C
Explanation: Boron plays a crucial role in pollen tube germination.

Q32. D-leaf is a nutrient indicator of:
A) Citrus
B) Mango
C) Pineapple
D) Banana
Answer: A
Explanation: D-leaf analysis is used to determine nutrient status in citrus.

Q33. Leafy head disorder of sprouting broccoli is associated with:
A) Excess water & N
B) High temperature
C) Both A & B
D) Delayed harvest
Answer: C
Explanation: Both excess water & nitrogen and high temperatures contribute to leafy head disorder.

Q34. Pungency of radish is due to:
A) -methylthio–trans-butenyl isothiocyanate
B) Acetaldehyde
C) trans–hexenal
D) Benzaldehyde
Answer: A
Explanation: The compound -methylthio–trans-butenyl isothiocyanate is responsible for radish pungency.

Q35. Organic phosphate solubilizer:
A) VAM
B) Thiobacillus
C) Aspergillus
D) Azotobacter
Answer: C
Explanation: Aspergillus is known for solubilizing organic phosphates.

Q36. Biopesticide use is limited due to:
A) Lack of mode-of-action knowledge
B) Storage/handling issues
C) Lack of strategy knowledge
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: All listed factors contribute to the limited use of biopesticides.

Q37. Nano fertilizer efficacy is due to:
A) High surface area
B) High penetration
C) Less leaching/runoff
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Nano fertilizers are effective due to their high surface area, penetration, and reduced leaching.

Q38. Tissue-culture propagated industrial crops include:
A) Oil palm, plantain, banana, date palm
B) Rose, Camellia, Coffee, Papaya
C) Pomegranate, coffee, plantain, rose
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Oil palm, plantain, banana, and date palm are propagated through tissue culture.

Q39. Embryo rescue is used to:
A) Grow immature embryo from interspecific cross to full plant
B) Raise virus-free plants
C) Produce tetraploid plants
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Embryo rescue helps in growing embryos from interspecific crosses to maturity.

Q40. Medicinal plant Kalmegh is used in:
A) Anti stress
B) Dog bites
C) Snake bites
D) Blood pressure control
Answer: A
Explanation: Kalmegh is known for its anti-stress properties.

Q41. Chilling requirement is partly replaced by:
A) IAA
B) ABA
C) BA
D) GA₃
Answer: D
Explanation: GA₃ (Gibberellic acid) can partially replace chilling requirements.

Q42. Withania somnifera is:
A) Safed Musli
B) Sarpagandha
C) Satawar
D) Aswagandha
Answer: D
Explanation: Withania somnifera is commonly known as Aswagandha.

Q43. Flower buds laterally on one-year shoot are found in:
A) Grape
B) Mango
C) Peach
D) Apple
Answer: D
Explanation: Apple trees produce flower buds laterally on one-year-old shoots.

Q44. Bitter pit in apple is due to deficiency of:
A) K
B) Ca
C) Zn
D) B
Answer: B
Explanation: Calcium deficiency leads to bitter pit in apples.

Q45. Family of lemongrass:
A) Rutaceae
B) Poaceae
C) Malvaceae
D) Chenopodiaceae
Answer: B
Explanation: Lemongrass belongs to the Poaceae family.

Q46. Major producer of saffron:
A) Iran
B) India
C) Spain
D) Greece
Answer: A
Explanation: Iran is the largest producer of saffron globally.

Q47. Nutrient controlling stomatal opening:
A) K
B) P
C) N
D) Cu
Answer: A
Explanation: Potassium plays a key role in the opening and closing of stomata.

Q48. Limiting amino acid in green vegetables:
A) Arginine
B) Lysine
C) Methionine
D) Tryptophan
Answer: C
Explanation: Methionine is often the limiting amino acid in green vegetables.

Q49. Non-climacteric fruit group:
A) Olive, loquat, phalsa
B) Aonla, strawberry, fig
C) Cherry, jamun, ber
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: All listed fruits are non-climacteric, meaning they do not ripen after harvest.

Q50. Fruit Products Order (FPO) was passed in:
A) 1950
B) 1955
C) 1960
D) 1965
Answer: B
Explanation: The Fruit Products Order (FPO) was enacted in 1955.

Q51. For transport of fruits, most countries use:
A) Sealed metal boxes
B) Perforated PVC
C) Earthen pots
D) Corrugated fibre board
Answer: D
Explanation: Corrugated fibre board is commonly used for transporting fruits.

Q52. Max permissible benzoic acid in jam/jelly is:
A) 100 ppm
B) 200 ppm
C) 300 ppm
D) 400 ppm
Answer: D
Explanation: The maximum permissible limit for benzoic acid in jams and jellies is 400 ppm.

Q53. Ideal cool storage for banana:
A) 13°C, 85–90% RH
B) 9°C
C) 7°C
D) 0°C
Answer: A
Explanation: Bananas are ideally stored at 13°C with 85–90% relative humidity.

Q54. Maturity symptoms: ridges, flat fruit, dry floral part refer to:
A) Litchi
B) Sweet orange
C) Pineapple
D) Pomegranate
Answer: D
Explanation: These maturity symptoms are indicative of pomegranates.

Q55. Champagne is sparkling wine of:
A) France
B) Italy
C) Germany
D) UK
Answer: A
Explanation: Champagne is a sparkling wine originating from France.

Q56. Benefit of waxing fruits:
A) Protection from decay
B) Reduce respiration & evaporation
C) Both A & B
D) Improve quality parameters
Answer: C
Explanation: Waxing helps in both protecting from decay and reducing respiration and evaporation.

Q57. Prevent spoilage in potato using:
A) Hypochlorite
B) Benomyl
C) Hot water
D) Sodium-phenyl phenate
Answer: D
Explanation: Sodium-phenyl phenate is used to prevent spoilage in potatoes.

Q58. Onion grading system is:
A) Static
B) Dynamic
C) Both
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Onion grading can be both static and dynamic.

Q59. Correct maturity match is:
A) Fruit colour: Okra
B) Abscission layer: Potato
C) Specific gravity: Cherry, mango, ber
D) Oil content: Persimmon
Answer: C
Explanation: Specific gravity is used to determine the maturity of fruits like cherry, mango, and ber.

Q60. Hypobaric storage focuses on:
A) Controlling microbes
B) Control ethylene & CO₂
C) Improve antioxidants
D) Better hydration
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypobaric storage is used to control ethylene and CO₂ levels.

Q61. Edible part of clove is:
A) Stem
B) Tendril
C) Leaf
D) Bud
Answer: D
Explanation: The bud of the clove is the edible part.

Q62. Mango hopper is more serious in:
A) Dense orchards
B) Low density
C) Pruned orchards
D) Drought orchards
Answer: A
Explanation: Dense orchards provide a favorable environment for mango hoppers.

Q63. Fusarium, Rhizoctonia, Pythium etc. are:
A) Air borne
B) Water borne
C) Soil borne
D) Endophytic
Answer: C
Explanation: These pathogens are primarily soil-borne.

Q64. Asepsis means:
A) Chemical killing
B) Physical killing
C) Free from microbes
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Asepsis refers to being free from microbial contamination.

Q65. Alternaria leaf & flower blight is serious in:
A) Rose
B) Chrysanthemum
C) Marigold
D) Gladiolus
Answer: C
Explanation: Marigold is particularly affected by Alternaria blight.

Q66. Yellow vein mosaic in okra is more prominent on:
A) Flowers
B) Old leaves
C) Stem
D) Young leaves
Answer: D
Explanation: The symptoms are more visible on young leaves.

Q67. Fruit fly lays eggs in cucurbits during:
A) Flowering
B) Fruit set
C) Seed sowing
D) Fruit development & maturity
Answer: D
Explanation: Eggs are laid during the fruit development and maturity stages.

Q68. Pheromone trap attracts:
A) Male bug
B) Male moth
C) Female bug
D) Female moth
Answer: B
Explanation: Pheromone traps are designed to attract male moths.

Q69. Nitrogen is a constituent of:
A) Gibberellins
B) Cytokinin
C) Abscisin-II
D) Calins
Answer: B
Explanation: Cytokinins are plant hormones that contain nitrogen.

Q70. Good growth occurs when C:N ratio is:
A) 10:1
B) 20:1
C) 30:1
D) 40:1
Answer: C
Explanation: A C:N ratio of 30:1 is optimal for plant growth.

Q71. Meadow orcharding is related to:
A) Litchi
B) Mango
C) Sapota
D) Guava
Answer: D
Explanation: Meadow orcharding is a practice used in guava cultivation.

Q72. NAA in 100 L water concentration is:
A) 2000 ppm
B) 200 ppm
C) 20 ppm
D) 10 ppm
Answer: A
Explanation: 2000 ppm is a common concentration for NAA solutions.

Q73. Promotes female flowers in cucumber:
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellin
C) Cytokinin
D) Ethylene
Answer: D
Explanation: Ethylene promotes the development of female flowers in cucumbers.

Q74. 2,4-D post-emergent herbicide chemically is:
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellin
C) Cytokinin
D) Ethylene
Answer: A
Explanation: 2,4-D is a synthetic auxin used as a herbicide.

Q75. Highest respiration rate at ambient temperature is in:
A) Banana
B) Apple
C) Pineapple
D) Citrus
Answer: A
Explanation: Bananas have a high respiration rate at ambient temperatures.

Q76. Cryotherapy low temperature range is:
A) –5 to 0°C
B) –9°C
C) 10–15°C
D) 20–25°C
Answer: B
Explanation: Cryotherapy often involves temperatures around –9°C.

Q77. Chemical for polyploidy breeding is:
A) NAA
B) Colchicine
C) CCC
D) MH
Answer: B
Explanation: Colchicine is used to induce polyploidy in plants.

Q78. Diploid 20 chromosomes → after mitosis:
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 80
Answer: B
Explanation: After mitosis, a diploid cell with 20 chromosomes still has 20 chromosomes.

Q79. Chemical to break grape bud dormancy:
A) KNO₃
B) Hydrogen cyanamide
C) CaCl₂
D) H₂O₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Hydrogen cyanamide is used to break dormancy in grape buds.

Q80. Aroma of overripe banana is due to:
A) Diallyl propyl
B) Isopentanol
C) Hexanol
D) Allyl propyl
Answer: B
Explanation: Isopentanol contributes to the aroma of overripe bananas.

Q81. Papain production is highest from:
A) Round unripe fruit
B) Small young fruits
C) Oblong fully grown fruit
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Papain is extracted most efficiently from small young papaya fruits.

Q82. Principle of preservation includes:
A) Prevent microbial decomposition
B) Prevent self-decomposition
C) Prevent insect damage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Preservation aims to prevent all forms of decomposition and damage.

Q83. Tomato for distant marketing is harvested at:
A) Immature green
B) Mature green
C) Turning
D) Red ripe
Answer: B
Explanation: Mature green tomatoes are harvested for distant markets to ensure they ripen during transit.

Q84. Nursery infrastructure subsidy (Gujarat – private) is:
A) ₹25 lakh
B) ₹50 lakh
C) ₹75 lakh
D) ₹100 lakh
Answer: B
Explanation: In Gujarat, a subsidy of ₹50 lakh is available for private nursery infrastructure.

Q85. Hi-tech nursery (1 ha) subsidy percentage is:
A) 80%
B) 50%
C) 40%
D) 25%
Answer: C
Explanation: A 40% subsidy is provided for hi-tech nursery development.

Q86. Excision & insertion of gene is known as:
A) Genetic engineering
B) Biotechnology
C) Cytogenetics
D) Gene therapy
Answer: A
Explanation: Genetic engineering involves the excision and insertion of genes.

Q87. Vw calculation formula is:
A) Vw = (A × RET)/Wt
B) (/A × RET)/Wt
C) (Wt × RET)/A
D) (A × RET)Wt
Answer: A
Explanation: The formula for Vw calculation is Vw = (A × RET)/Wt.

Q88. India’s fresh fruit & vegetable export in 2022–23 was:
A) ₹11,185 crore
B) ₹12,185 crore
C) ₹13,185 crore
D) ₹14,185 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: India exported fresh fruits and vegetables worth ₹13,185 crore in 2022–23.

Q89. KCC scheme was launched in:
A) 1997
B) 1998
C) 1999
D) 2000
Answer: B
Explanation: The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was launched in 1998.

Q90. Highest fruit crop productivity in Gujarat is in:
A) Narmada
B) Navsari
C) Amreli
D) Rajkot
Answer: B
Explanation: Navsari district has the highest fruit crop productivity in Gujarat.

Q91. Coconut hybrid (DxT) N dose monthly via drip is:
A) 125 g
B) 250 g
C) 500 g
D) 1000 g
Answer: B
Explanation: A monthly dose of 250 g of nitrogen is recommended for coconut hybrids via drip irrigation.

Q92. Natural Farming District of Gujarat is:
A) Ahmedabad
B) Gandhinagar
C) Jamnagar
D) Dang
Answer: D
Explanation: Dang is recognized as a Natural Farming District in Gujarat.

Q93. Total horticultural area & production in Gujarat is:
A) 10 lakh ha & 20 lakh t
B) 15 lakh ha & 25 lakh t
C) 20 lakh ha & 30 lakh t
D) 25 lakh ha & 35 lakh t
Answer: A
Explanation: Gujarat has a horticultural area of 10 lakh ha with a production of 20 lakh tonnes.

Q94. Group extension is NOT helpful when:
A) Discuss site pros/cons
B) Need tailor-made info
C) Cost concerns
D) Powerful people influence
Answer: B
Explanation: Group extension is less effective when information needs to be tailor-made for individuals.

Q95. Mandate of KVK includes:
A) On-farm trials
B) Trainings
C) FLDs & Melas
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: KVKs are mandated to conduct on-farm trials, trainings, and FLDs & Melas.

Q96. mKisan is:
A) Rural women empowerment
B) Monetary help
C) Mobile-based farmer advisory
D) Honour farmers
Answer: C
Explanation: mKisan is a mobile-based advisory service for farmers.

Q97. Laboratory work with computers (offline) is called:
A) Insilico
B) Wet lab
C) Dry lab
D) All
Answer: C
Explanation: Offline laboratory work with computers is referred to as dry lab work.

Q98. Duration of patent protection per OECD is:
A) 12–15 years
B) 10–13 years
C) 17–20 years
D) 22–25 years
Answer: C
Explanation: OECD guidelines state patent protection lasts 17–20 years.

Q99. Which organisms produce their own food through photosynthesis?
A) Phototrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Decomposers
D) Carnivores
Answer: A
Explanation: Phototrophs synthesize food using light energy.

Q100. Organisms that depend on other organisms for food are called:
A) Phototrophs
B) Saprophytes
C) Heterotrophs
D) Autotrophs
Answer: C
Explanation: Heterotrophs feed on producers or other consumers.

this quiz

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. India is acclaimed as home of:
A) Fruits
B) Vegetables
C) Flowers
D) Spices and Medicinal plants
Answer: D
Explanation: India is renowned for its diverse spices and medicinal plants.

Q2. India’s share of horticultural produce in the Global market is about:
A) 7%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Answer: C
Explanation: India holds about 10% share in the global horticultural market.

Q3. International Institute of Horticulture is situated in:
A) Belgium
B) Italy
C) Brazil
D) Netherlands
Answer: D
Explanation: The International Institute of Horticulture is located in the Netherlands.

Q4. India’s share in global banana production (2021) is around:
A) 9%
B) 15%
C) 22%
D) 26%
Answer: D
Explanation: India contributes approximately 26% to the global banana production.

Q5. Central Institute for Temperate Horticulture (CITH) is situated in:
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Jammu & Kashmir
C) Uttarakhand
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: B
Explanation: CITH is located in Jammu & Kashmir.

Q6. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources, New Delhi was established in:
A) 1976
B) 1977
C) 1974
D) 1975
Answer: C
Explanation: The bureau was established in 1974.

Q7. The aim of integrated development of horticulture under MIDH is:
A) Feeding the population
B) Meeting requirement of processing industry
C) Meeting export needs
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: MIDH aims to address multiple horticultural needs including population, industry, and export.

Q8. Which fruit crop is not a manmade crop?
A) Banana
B) Grapefruits
C) Loquat
D) Strawberry
Answer: C
Explanation: Loquat is not a manmade crop, unlike the others.

Q9. Orchards maintained by nurserymen for propagation are called:
A) Seed Orchard
B) Progeny Orchard
C) Mother Orchard
D) Gene bank
Answer: C
Explanation: Mother Orchards are used for propagation purposes.

Q10. Progeny of Breeder seed is:
A) Foundation seed
B) Nucleus seed
C) Certified seed
D) Transgenic seed
Answer: A
Explanation: Foundation seed is produced from breeder seed.

Q11. Pistachio nut belongs to family:
A) Moraceae
B) Polygonaceae
C) Leguminoceae
D) Anacardiaceae
Answer: D
Explanation: Pistachio belongs to the Anacardiaceae family.

Q12. The fruit crop NOT in Rosaceae:
A) Raspberry
B) Strawberry
C) Loquat
D) Blueberry
Answer: C
Explanation: Loquat is not part of the Rosaceae family.

Q13. Mango variety ‘Vellaikolumban’ is:
A) Autopolyploid
B) Diploid
C) Triploid
D) Allopolyploid
Answer: C
Explanation: Vellaikolumban is a triploid variety of mango.

Q14. PKM is a dwarf variety of:
A) Papaya
B) Sapota
C) Guava
D) Citrus
Answer: A
Explanation: PKM is a known dwarf variety of papaya.

Q15. Hybrid between V. vinifera × V. labrusca:
A) Perlette
B) Bangalore Blue
C) Pusa Seedless
D) Arkavati
Answer: B
Explanation: Bangalore Blue is a hybrid of V. vinifera and V. labrusca.

Q16. Reformed Indian Patents Act of 1999 came into force on:
A) Jan 1995
B) Jan 1998
C) Jan 1999
D) Apr 1999
Answer: D
Explanation: The act was enforced in April 1999.

Q17. Mango malformation first observed in 1891 in:
A) Bihar
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Maharashtra
D) Karnataka
Answer: B
Explanation: This malformation was first observed in Uttar Pradesh.

Q18. Bael (Aegle marmelos) is native to:
A) USA
B) China
C) Italy
D) India
Answer: D
Explanation: Bael is native to India.

Q19. Edible banana is seedless due to:
A) Parthenogenesis
B) Stimulated parthenocarpy
C) Vegetative parthenocarpy
D) Embryo abortion
Answer: D
Explanation: Bananas are seedless due to embryo abortion.

Q20. Government contribution under MIDH:
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Answer: C
Explanation: The government contributes 60% under MIDH.

Q21. Water balance under drought:
A) Only I
B) I & II
C) All I, II, III
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: All three components are considered for water balance during drought.

Q22. During juvenile phase plant cannot be induced to:
A) Suckering
B) Rooting
C) Flower
D) Burknott formation
Answer: C
Explanation: Plants cannot be induced to flower during the juvenile phase.

Q23. Water shoots & suckers serious problem in:
A) Tamarind
B) Phalsa
C) Mangosteen
D) Pomegranate
Answer: D
Explanation: Pomegranate is prone to issues with water shoots and suckers.

Q24. Aonla fruit type:
A) Drupe
B) Berry
C) Sorosis
D) Capsule
Answer: B
Explanation: Aonla is classified as a berry.

Q25. Most sensitive to below 7°C storage:
A) Mango
B) Citrus
C) Guava
D) Banana
Answer: D
Explanation: Bananas are sensitive to temperatures below 7°C.

Q26. Scarification done by:
A) Alcohol
B) High temperature
C) Acetic acid
D) Hot water
Answer: D
Explanation: Hot water is used for scarification.

Q27. Tetrazolium viable seed colour:
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Red
D) Black
Answer: C
Explanation: Viable seeds turn red when treated with tetrazolium.

Q28. Male sterile peach variety:
A) July Elberta
B) Kanto-5
C) JH Hale
D) Shan-e-Punjab
Answer: C
Explanation: JH Hale is a male sterile variety of peach.

Q29. UPOV headquarters:
A) Belgium
B) Geneva
C) France
D) Germany
Answer: B
Explanation: The UPOV is headquartered in Geneva.

Q30. NRC Seed Spices located at:
A) Rajasthan
B) Bihar
C) Gujarat
D) West Bengal
Answer: A
Explanation: The NRC for Seed Spices is located in Rajasthan.

Q31. India largest producer of:
A) Ginger & Okra
B) Potato & Onion
C) Cauliflower & Cabbage
D) Brinjal & Peas
Answer: A
Explanation: India is the largest producer of ginger and okra.

Q32. Dockage means:
A) Germination
B) Impurity %
C) Sampling
D) Seed source
Answer: B
Explanation: Dockage refers to the percentage of impurities in seeds.

Q33. Potato greening caused by:
A) Low temperature
B) Low light
C) High temperature
D) High light intensity
Answer: D
Explanation: Potatoes turn green due to high light intensity.

Q34. Slender Spindle system for:
A) Mango
B) Peach
C) Apple
D) Plum
Answer: C
Explanation: The Slender Spindle system is used for apple orchards.

Q35. Caprification occurs in:
A) Aonla
B) Fig
C) Jamun
D) Bael
Answer: B
Explanation: Caprification is a process associated with figs.

Q36. Poor set in Annona due to:
A) Heterostyly
B) Dichogamy
C) Incompatibility
D) Sterility
Answer: B
Explanation: Dichogamy leads to poor fruit set in Annona.

Q37. Pusa Ruby is variety of:
A) Gram
B) Pea
C) Tomato
D) Ber
Answer: C
Explanation: Pusa Ruby is a variety of tomato.

Q38. Purple blotch common in:
A) Turmeric
B) Tomato
C) Brinjal
D) Onion
Answer: D
Explanation: Purple blotch is a common disease in onions.

Q39. Aril difference explanation correct:
A) Outgrowth of seed integuments in litchi & swollen testa in pomegranate
B) Outgrowth of seed integuments in pomegranate & swollen testa in litchi
C) Swollen testa in both litchi & pomegranate
D) No difference
Answer: A
Explanation: The aril is an outgrowth in litchi and a swollen testa in pomegranate.

Q40. Citrus nobilis relates to:
A) Mandarin
B) Sweet orange
C) Pummelo
D) Acid
Answer: A
Explanation: Citrus nobilis is commonly known as Mandarin.

Q41. Seedless Sindhu hybrid of:
A) Ratna × Alphonso
B) Neelam × Alphonso
C) Alphonso × Ratna
D) Dashehari × Neelam
Answer: C
Explanation: Sindhu is a hybrid of Alphonso and Ratna.

Q42. Sanaur- ber resistant to:
A) Fruit cracking
B) Fruit drop
C) Powdery mildew
D) Mealy bug
Answer: C
Explanation: Sanaur-ber is resistant to powdery mildew.

Q43. Often cross-pollinated though selfable:
A) Pea
B) Soybean
C) Broad bean
D) Cowpea
Answer: B
Explanation: Soybean is often cross-pollinated though it can self-pollinate.

Q44. Potato native to:
A) Europe
B) India
C) South America
D) Africa
Answer: C
Explanation: Potatoes originated in South America.

Q45. Spinach belongs to:
A) Solanaceae
B) Malvaceae
C) Amaranthaceae
D) Cruciferae
Answer: C
Explanation: Spinach is part of the Amaranthaceae family.

Q46. Turmeric rich in:
A) Lycopene
B) Thymol
C) Curcumin
D) Luteolin
Answer: C
Explanation: Turmeric is rich in curcumin.

Q47. Tissue culture micropropagation principle:
A) Cell division
B) Cell differentiation
C) Protoplast fusion
D) Totipotency
Answer: D
Explanation: Totipotency is the principle behind tissue culture micropropagation.

Q48. “Colt” rootstock for:
A) Plum
B) Cherry
C) Pecannut
D) Pear
Answer: B
Explanation: Colt is a rootstock used for cherries.

Q49. Strawberry propagation:
A) Sucker
B) Rhizome
C) Runner
D) Offsets
Answer: C
Explanation: Strawberries are propagated through runners.

Q50. Most dwarfing apple rootstock:
A) M9
B) M7
C) M26
D) M27
Answer: D
Explanation: M27 is the most dwarfing rootstock for apples.

Q51. Pusa Srijjan rootstock resistant to:
A) Anthracnose
B) Wilt
C) Fruit rot
D) Fruit fly
Answer: B
Explanation: Pusa Srijjan is resistant to wilt.

Q52. Apple of tropics:
A) Guava
B) Pineapple
C) Bael
D) Pomegranate
Answer: A
Explanation: Guava is often referred to as the apple of the tropics.

Q53. Ambri apple indigenous to:
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Kashmir
D) Arunachal
Answer: C
Explanation: Ambri apple is indigenous to Kashmir.

Q54. Goa is variety of:
A) Coconut
B) Cashew
C) Pineapple
D) Mango
Answer: B
Explanation: Goa is a variety of cashew.

Q55. Apple Colour is variety of:
A) Apple
B) Pineapple
C) Guava
D) Mango
Answer: C
Explanation: Apple Colour is a variety of guava.

Q56. Strawberry botanical:
A) Etaerio of berries
B) Etaerio of achenes
C) Etaerio of drupe
D) Pome fruit
Answer: B
Explanation: Strawberries are botanically an etaerio of achenes.

Q57. Seed rate hybrid cauliflower per ha:
A) 100 g
B) 250 g
C) 500 g
D) 750 g
Answer: A
Explanation: The seed rate for hybrid cauliflower is 100 g per hectare.

Q58. Golden Acre suitable for:
A) Hills
B) Plateau
C) Both A & B
D) Plains
Answer: C
Explanation: Golden Acre is suitable for both hills and plateaus.

Q59. Seed plot technique for:
A) Brinjal
B) Tomato
C) Ginger
D) Potato
Answer: D
Explanation: The seed plot technique is used for potato cultivation.

Q60. Miracle fruit of China:
A) Kiwifruit
B) Litchi
C) Rambutan
D) Persimmon
Answer: D
Explanation: Persimmon is often referred to as the miracle fruit of China.

Q61. Richest source Vitamin C:
A) Aonla
B) Guava
C) Barbados cherry
D) Lime
Answer: C
Explanation: Barbados cherry is the richest source of Vitamin C.

Q62. Max iron content:
A) Date palm
B) Mango
C) Banana
D) Karonda
Answer: D
Explanation: Karonda has the maximum iron content among the options.

Q63. Component of nitrate-reducing enzyme:
A) P
B) Mg
C) Zn
D) Mo
Answer: D
Explanation: Molybdenum (Mo) is a component of nitrate-reducing enzymes.

Q64. NOT deciduous:
A) Cherry
B) Apricot
C) Walnut
D) Mangosteen
Answer: D
Explanation: Mangosteen is an evergreen plant, not deciduous.

Q65. Dioecious:
A) Pecannut
B) Strawberry
C) Walnut
D) Kiwifruit
Answer: D
Explanation: Kiwifruit is a dioecious plant.

Q66. Fruit set formula (pome):
A) Fruits/flowers
B) Fruits at walnut/flower clusters
C) Fruits/flower clusters
D) Fruits at walnut/flowers
Answer: C
Explanation: The formula for fruit set in pomes is fruits per flower cluster.

Q67. Mexican race avocado tolerant to:
A) Cold
B) High salt
C) High temperature
D) Drought
Answer: A
Explanation: Mexican race avocados are tolerant to cold temperatures.

Q68. Clerodendrum host for:
A) Mango thrips
B) Mango hopper
C) Mango psylla
D) Giant mealy bug
Answer: D
Explanation: Clerodendrum is a host for the giant mealy bug.

Q69. Extremely dwarf papaya:
A) Pusa Delicious
B) Pusa Majesty
C) Pusa Nanha
D) Pusa Dwarf
Answer: C
Explanation: Pusa Nanha is an extremely dwarf variety of papaya.

Q70. Summer pruning useful to:
A) Impart dwarfness
B) Protection
C) Induce vigour
D) Break dormancy
Answer: A
Explanation: Summer pruning is used to impart dwarfness to plants.

Q71. Cashew pruning time:
A) Jan-Feb
B) Mar-Apr
C) Jun-Jul
D) Aug-Sep
Answer: A
Explanation: Pruning of cashew is typically done in January to February.

Q72. High auxin:cytokinin ratio favours:
A) Shoots
B) Flower
C) Embryo
D) Roots
Answer: D
Explanation: A high auxin to cytokinin ratio promotes root growth.

Q73. Virus-free plant part:
A) Xylem
B) Meristem
C) Phloem
D) Cambium
Answer: B
Explanation: The meristem is often virus-free and used for propagation.

Q74. Short woody fruiting branch:
A) Rib
B) Spur
C) Stolon
D) Tendril
Answer: B
Explanation: A spur is a short woody fruiting branch.

Q75. Chip vs Patch budding difference:
A) Chip has bud & wood
B) Patch has bud & wood
C) Chip = bud only
D) Patch = wood only
Answer: C
Explanation: Chip budding involves only the bud, not the wood.

Q76. Carbon sequestering crop:
A) Tea
B) Coffee
C) Coconut
D) Areca nut
Answer: C
Explanation: Coconut is known for its carbon sequestering ability.

Q77. Flower colour Vanilla planifolia:
A) Pink
B) Creamy white
C) White
D) Yellow
Answer: B
Explanation: Vanilla planifolia flowers are creamy white.

Q78. Containers for cut flowers:
A) Wooden
B) Plastic
C) Cardboard
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Cut flowers can be stored in all these types of containers.

Q79. Seed nomograph relates:
A) Temp–moisture–viability
B) Temp–humidity–viability
C) RH–viability–moisture
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: A seed nomograph relates temperature, moisture, and viability.

Q80. Eutrophication depletes oxygen in:
A) Soil
B) Air
C) Water
D) Animals
Answer: C
Explanation: Eutrophication leads to oxygen depletion in water bodies.

Q81. Santragachi Elephant Foot Yam:
A) High acridity
B) Without acridity
C) Slight acridity
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Santragachi Elephant Foot Yam is known for being without acridity.

Q82. Pollination in European seedless cucumber causes:
A) Well shaped fruits
B) Off shaped fruits
C) Bitter fruits
D) Sweet fruits
Answer: B
Explanation: Pollination in seedless cucumbers can lead to off-shaped fruits.

Q83. Purna Rakshak GNO- is variety of:
A) Cassava
B) Khejari
C) Okra
D) Zinger
Answer: C
Explanation: Purna Rakshak GNO- is a variety of okra.

Q84. Zinger with mango flavour:
A) GJ-Mango
B) GJ-Madhu
C) GNMG-
D) GNMG-8
Answer: A
Explanation: GJ-Mango is a zinger with mango flavor.

Q85. Metaxenia found in:
A) Date palm
B) Cashew
C) Pecan
D) Coconut
Answer: A
Explanation: Metaxenia is a phenomenon observed in date palms.

Q86. Seed collection for regeneration only:
A) Base
B) Active
C) Working
D) Field
Answer: A
Explanation: Base collections are used for regeneration purposes.

Q87. Genetic drift also known as:
A) Genetic erosion
B) Genetic slippage
C) Variable drift
D) Random drift
Answer: D
Explanation: Genetic drift is also referred to as random drift.

Q88. GNT- Pitambri recommended as:
A) Early turmeric S-Gujarat
B) Early tuberose SW-Gujarat
C) Late tuberose S-Gujarat
D) Late turmeric Central-Gujarat
Answer: A
Explanation: GNT- Pitambri is recommended as early turmeric for S-Gujarat.

Q89. Potato for French fries:
A) Kufri Jyoti
B) Atlantic
C) Kufri Puska
D) Santana
Answer: B
Explanation: Atlantic potatoes are preferred for French fries.

Q90. Garlic sprouting caused when:
A) Dry stress
B) Shading + high temp
C) Winter rains + high moisture + N
D) Sharp drop temp cold
Answer: C
Explanation: Garlic sprouts due to winter rains, high moisture, and nitrogen.

Q91. Certified cauliflower pure seed & inert matter:
A) 98, 2
B) 100, 0
C) 95, 5
D) 92, 8
Answer: A
Explanation: Certified cauliflower seeds have 98% purity and 2% inert matter.

Q92. Snipping peeling used in:
A) Beans
B) Potato
C) Yam
D) Capsicum
Answer: A
Explanation: Snipping and peeling are techniques used in beans.

Q93. Two leaf & a bud plucking in:
A) Tea
B) Palak
C) Coffee
D) Methi
Answer: A
Explanation: This plucking method is used in tea cultivation.

Q94. Final ripening stage of date palm:
A) Pind
B) Dang
C) Doka
D) Gandora
Answer: D
Explanation: Gandora is the final ripening stage of date palms.

Q95. Second most traded commodity:
A) Tea
B) Coffee
C) Cocoa
D) Rubber
Answer: B
Explanation: Coffee is the second most traded commodity after oil.

Q96. Barren nuts in coconut due to:
A) Colletotrichum
B) Defective pollination
C) Weevil
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Barren nuts in coconuts are often due to defective pollination.

Q97. World Coconut Day:
A) 5 Sept
B) 5 June
C) 2 Sept
D) 2 June
Answer: A
Explanation: World Coconut Day is celebrated on 5th September.

Q98. ‘Manlga’ is variety of:
A) Coffee
B) Areca nut
C) Coconut
D) Tea
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘Manlga’ is a variety of Areca nut.

Q99. Clove bud oil eugenol:
A) 25%
B) 45%
C) 65%
D) 85%
Answer: C
Explanation: Clove bud oil contains about 65% eugenol.

Q100. Which garden design based on heaven idea?
A) English
B) Japanese
C) Mughal
D) French
Answer: C
Explanation: Mughal gardens are designed based on the idea of heaven.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. What is the genus of flowering shrubs?
A) Collinsia, Cuphea, Cheiranthus
B) Cananga, Carissa, Cassia, Cestrum
C) Gilia, Godetia, Limonium
D) None of these
Answer: B
Explanation: Cananga, Carissa, Cassia, and Cestrum are all genera of flowering shrubs.

Q2. ‘Casablanca’ is a cultivar of which plant?
A) Lotus
B) Gladiolus
C) Lilium
D) Tulip
Answer: C
Explanation: Casablanca is a well-known cultivar of Lilium.

Q3. ‘Ratlam Selection’ chrysanthemum is recommended for which region?
A) Northern Gujarat
B) Southern Gujarat
C) Middle Gujarat
D) West Gujarat
Answer: C
Explanation: Ratlam Selection is recommended for Middle Gujarat.

Q4. Peach is generally trained as which form?
A) Central Leader
B) Modified Central Leader
C) Open Vase
D) Vertical Axis
Answer: C
Explanation: Peach trees are typically trained to an open vase shape.

Q5. Carnation and chrysanthemum are mainly propagated through which method?
A) Seed
B) Layering
C) Cutting
D) Budding
Answer: C
Explanation: Cuttings are the primary method for propagating carnations and chrysanthemums.

Q6. The world-famous Keukenhof tulip garden is located in which country?
A) Switzerland
B) France
C) USA
D) Netherlands
Answer: D
Explanation: Keukenhof is located in the Netherlands.

Q7. Baradari (Canopy) is a feature of which type of garden?
A) Japanese garden
B) French garden
C) English garden
D) Mughal garden
Answer: D
Explanation: Baradari is a characteristic feature of Mughal gardens.

Q8. Ikebana is the art of what?
A) Soil culture
B) Bonsai culture
C) Flower arrangement
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Ikebana is the Japanese art of flower arrangement.

Q9. Colourful bracts are found in which plants?
A) Bougainvillea & Poinsettia
B) Marigold & Rose
C) Aster & Daisy
D) Lotus & Carnation
Answer: A
Explanation: Bougainvillea and Poinsettia are known for their colorful bracts.

Q10. Patchouli is propagated through which method?
A) Seed
B) Division
C) Layering
D) Terminal shoot cuttings
Answer: D
Explanation: Patchouli is commonly propagated through terminal shoot cuttings.

Q11. What is the precursor of ethylene?
A) Methionine
B) Glycine
C) Alanine
D) Tryptophan
Answer: A
Explanation: Methionine is a precursor in the biosynthesis of ethylene.

Q12. Which enzyme is related to fruit ripening?
A) Phenolase
B) Amylase
C) Lipolytic
D) Proteolytic
Answer: A
Explanation: Phenolase is involved in the process of fruit ripening.

Q13. The CAM cycle is present in which plant?
A) Sapota
B) Strawberry
C) Pineapple
D) Papaya
Answer: C
Explanation: The CAM cycle is a photosynthetic process in pineapple.

Q14. What is the major alkaloid found in tomatoes?
A) Solanine
B) Tomatine
C) Chaconine
D) Solasmin
Answer: B
Explanation: Tomatine is the major alkaloid present in tomatoes.

Q15. What is the concentration of NAA used in bananas for seed removal and bunch grading?
A) 25 ppm
B) 125 ppm
C) 50 ppm
D) 100 ppm
Answer: A
Explanation: A concentration of 25 ppm NAA is used for this purpose.

Q16. Which growth regulator can partly replace the chilling requirement?
A) IAA
B) IBA
C) NAA
D) GA₃
Answer: D
Explanation: GA₃ can partly replace the chilling requirement in plants.

Q17. GA₃ induces which type of flowers in cucumber?
A) Male
B) Female
C) Hermaphrodite
D) All
Answer: A
Explanation: GA₃ induces the formation of male flowers in cucumber.

Q18. Which growth regulator is used for fruit drop control in citrus?
A) NAA
B) 2,4-D
C) IBA
D) ABA
Answer: B
Explanation: 2,4-D is used to control fruit drop in citrus.

Q19. Bloom delay in temperate fruits can be achieved with which chemical?
A) NAA
B) Boron
C) Ethephon
D) Urea
Answer: C
Explanation: Ethephon is used to delay bloom in temperate fruits.

Q20. Rancidity is a problem in which type of spices?
A) Seed spices with high fixed oil
B) Seed spices with high volatile oil
C) Grinded spices
D) Curry powder
Answer: A
Explanation: Rancidity is a common issue in seed spices with high fixed oil content.

Q21. What is a sparkling clear liquid with no solids called?
A) Concentrate
B) Squash
C) Cordial
D) Beverage
Answer: C
Explanation: A cordial is a sparkling clear liquid without solids.

Q22. What is the chemical formula for potassium metabisulfite?
A) KSO₂
B) K₂SO₂
C) K₂S₂O₇
D) K₂S₂O₅
Answer: D
Explanation: The chemical formula for potassium metabisulfite is K₂S₂O₅.

Q23. Which is NOT a characteristic of an ideal jelly?
A) Transparent
B) Delicately soft
C) Stiff to hold form
D) Color & flavor of jellyfish
Answer: D
Explanation: An ideal jelly should not have the color and flavor of jellyfish.

Q24. The TSS of jam should not be more than what percentage?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 55%
D) 70%
Answer: B
Explanation: The total soluble solids (TSS) of jam should not exceed 60%.

Q25. Which of the following is NOT a preservative?
A) Sodium benzoate
B) Acetic acid
C) Methyl bromide
D) Potassium metabisulfite
Answer: C
Explanation: Methyl bromide is not used as a preservative.

Q26. What is the first step in tea processing?
A) Withering
B) Fermentation
C) Skiffing
D) Tipping
Answer: A
Explanation: Withering is the first step in the processing of tea.

Q27. De-handling of false hands in banana occurs when?
A) Soon after bloom
B) At ½ finger length
C) Before harvest
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: De-handling occurs when the banana reaches half finger length.

Q28. Horticultural crops are considered what type of food?
A) Staple food
B) Sustainable food
C) Protective food
D) Complete food
Answer: C
Explanation: Horticultural crops are known as protective foods due to their nutritional benefits.

Q29. Which fruit is rich in Vitamin C, pectin, calcium, and phosphorus?
A) Mango
B) Aonla
C) Guava
D) Litchi
Answer: B
Explanation: Aonla is rich in Vitamin C, pectin, calcium, and phosphorus.

Q30. Which fruit crop is dioecious?
A) Date palm
B) Loquat
C) Walnut
D) Strawberry
Answer: A
Explanation: Date palm is a dioecious fruit crop, having separate male and female plants.

Q31. What type of fruit is tamarind?
A) Pome
B) Berry
C) Lomentum
D) Sorosis
Answer: C
Explanation: Tamarind is classified as a lomentum type of fruit.

Q32. Which group of fruits is non-climacteric?
A) Olive, loquat, phalsa
B) Aonla, strawberry, fig
C) Cherry, jamun, ber
D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: All listed fruits are non-climacteric, meaning they do not ripen after harvest.

Q33. What is the scientific name of the cultivated apple?
A) Malus × pumila
B) Malus × sikkimensis
C) Malus × sylvestris
D) Malus × domestica
Answer: D
Explanation: The scientific name for cultivated apple is Malus × domestica.

Q34. What is the most stable sex form in papaya?
A) M¹Rr
B) M¹rr
C) mm
D) M²
Answer: C
Explanation: The ‘mm’ genotype represents the stable female form in papaya.

Q35. What is the C:N ratio of humus?
A) 10:1
B) 20:1
C) 30:1
D) 40:1
Answer: A
Explanation: Humus typically has a C:N ratio of 10:1.

Q36. Which plant is a stem-nodulating green manure?
A) Pongamia
B) Trifolium
C) Dolichos
D) Sesbania
Answer: D
Explanation: Sesbania is known for its ability to fix nitrogen through stem nodulation.

Q37. What percentage of boron does boric acid contain?
A) 15%
B) 17%
C) 19%
D) 21%
Answer: C
Explanation: Boric acid contains 19% boron.

Q38. From which location did the Bunchy Top virus enter India?
A) USA
B) Japan
C) Fiji Islands
D) Sri Lanka
Answer: C
Explanation: The Bunchy Top virus entered India from the Fiji Islands.

Q39. What causes the little leaf disease in brinjal?
A) Mycoplasma
B) Bacteria
C) Virus
D) All of these
Answer: A
Explanation: Mycoplasma is responsible for the little leaf disease in brinjal.

Q40. Erwinia amylovora causes which disease?
A) Soft nose in mango
B) Moko wilt in banana
C) Fire blight in apple & pear
D) Guava wilt
Answer: C
Explanation: Erwinia amylovora causes fire blight in apple and pear.

Q41. In which crop is the shoot and fruit borer a serious pest?
A) Cabbage
B) Cauliflower
C) Brinjal
D) Tomato
Answer: C
Explanation: The shoot and fruit borer is a significant pest in brinjal.

Q42. Buckeye rot is a disease of which plant?
A) Sweet potato
B) Tomato
C) Garden pea pod
D) Water chestnut
Answer: B
Explanation: Buckeye rot is a common disease affecting tomatoes.

Q43. Which disease is indicated by rings, leaf curling, and mosaic in fruit?
A) Yellow vein mosaic (Papaya)
B) Ring spot virus (Papaya)
C) Greening (Citrus)
D) Tristeza (Citrus)
Answer: B
Explanation: Ring spot virus in papaya shows symptoms like rings and leaf curling.

Q44. Which biological control agent is used for soil-borne pathogens?
A) Trichoderma
B) Pseudomonas
C) Bacillus
D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: Trichoderma, Pseudomonas, and Bacillus are all used to control soil-borne pathogens.

Q45. Poor fruit set in Annona is due to which factor?
A) Heterostyly
B) Sterility
C) Incompatibility
D) Dichogamy
Answer: D
Explanation: Dichogamy, the maturation of male and female organs at different times, affects fruit set in Annona.

Q46. A tendrometer measures the maturity of which crop?
A) Pea
B) Banana
C) Citrus
D) Lilium
Answer: A
Explanation: A tendrometer is used to measure the maturity of peas.

Q47. Which crop is adopted for vertical farming?
A) Potato
B) Leafy greens
C) Turmeric
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Leafy greens are commonly grown in vertical farming systems.

Q48. Pusa Lalima mango is a cross of which varieties?
A) Dashehari × Sensation
B) Amrapali × Lal Sundri
C) Amrapali × Alphonso
D) Bombay × Kalapadi
Answer: A
Explanation: Pusa Lalima is a cross between Dashehari and Sensation mango varieties.

Q49. Certification of organic products in India is regulated by which organization?
A) ICAR
B) CIB
C) APEDA
D) Indocert
Answer: C
Explanation: APEDA is responsible for the certification of organic products in India.

Q50. Which pineapple group is primarily used for export?
A) Spanish
B) Cayenne
C) Queen
D) Abacaxi
Answer: B
Explanation: Cayenne is the pineapple group most commonly exported.

Q51. What is the stratification temperature for apples?
A) 10–15°C
B) 0–5°C
C) 12–15°C
D) 5–10°C
Answer: B
Explanation: Apples require a stratification temperature of 0–5°C.

Q52. During the juvenile phase, a plant can be induced to do what?
A) Flower
B) Sucker
C) Burknott
D) Root
Answer: B
Explanation: Plants can be induced to produce suckers during their juvenile phase.

Q53. What type of fruit is a pineapple?
A) Berry
B) Pome
C) Capsule
D) Sorosis
Answer: D
Explanation: Pineapple is classified as a sorosis type of fruit.

Q54. Bangalore Blue × Anab-e-Shahi is known as which variety?
A) Arka Hans
B) Arkavati
C) Arka Kanchan
D) Arka Shyam
Answer: B
Explanation: The cross of Bangalore Blue and Anab-e-Shahi is known as Arkavati.

Q55. Le Conte pear hybrid is a cross between which species?
A) P. serotina × P. sinensis
B) P. communis × P. pashia
C) P. communis × P. pyrifolia
D) P. pyrifolia × P. sinensis
Answer: C
Explanation: Le Conte pear is a hybrid of P. communis and P. pyrifolia.

Q56. Pusa Srijan is a dwarfing rootstock for which fruit?
A) Mango
B) Citrus
C) Guava
D) Ber
Answer: C
Explanation: Pusa Srijan is used as a dwarfing rootstock for guava.

Q57. Which fruit is rich in iron?
A) Apple
B) Date palm
C) Dry Karonda
D) Papaya
Answer: C
Explanation: Dry Karonda is known for its high iron content.

Q58. Cultivated strawberries are what type of polyploid?
A) Diploid
B) Tetraploid
C) Hexaploid
D) Octaploid
Answer: D
Explanation: Cultivated strawberries are octaploid, having eight sets of chromosomes.

Q59. Which citrus fruit has high malic acid content?
A) Kagzi lime
B) Sweet lime
C) Sweet orange
D) Kinnow
Answer: D
Explanation: Kinnow is known for its high malic acid content.

Q60. Apple clonal rootstocks are multiplied by which method?
A) Cutting
B) Stooling
C) Grafting
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Stooling is a common method for multiplying apple clonal rootstocks.

Q61. Which vitamin contains cobalt?
A) A
B) C
C) D
D) B₁₂
Answer: D
Explanation: Vitamin B₁₂ contains cobalt as part of its structure.

Q62. Which is NOT part of thrips management?
A) Monitoring
B) Destroying infested plants
C) Uprooting weeds
D) Using Zygogramma bicolorata (ladybird beetle)
Answer: D
Explanation: Zygogramma bicolorata is not used in thrips management.

Q63. LEISA stands for what?
A) Multiple cropping
B) Local resource-based farming
C) Inorganic farming
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: LEISA refers to farming based on local resources.

Q64. CxH2O compounds formed in light are known as what?
A) Aldehydes
B) Organic acids
C) Total soluble solids
D) Carbohydrates
Answer: D
Explanation: Carbohydrates are formed through photosynthesis in light.

Q65. Which plant is an indicator for citrus tristeza?
A) C. aurantifolia (Kagzi lime)
B) C. grandis
C) C. sinensis
D) C. reticulata
Answer: A
Explanation: Kagzi lime is used as an indicator for citrus tristeza.

Q66. Etiolation is caused by which condition?
A) High temperature
B) Low temperature
C) High light
D) Low light
Answer: D
Explanation: Etiolation occurs due to low light conditions.

Q67. What is the economic part of Sarpagandha?
A) Seed
B) Dried roots
C) Leaves
D) Gum resin
Answer: B
Explanation: The dried roots of Sarpagandha are used economically.

Q68. Mango flowering is inhibited in ON year due to high levels of what?
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellins
C) Zeatin riboside
D) ABA
Answer: B
Explanation: High levels of gibberellins inhibit mango flowering in ON years.

Q69. Terpentine drug is obtained from which plant?
A) Pine
B) Poppy
C) Celery
D) Aloe
Answer: A
Explanation: Terpentine is extracted from pine trees.

Q70. Loss of nitrogen as NH₃ is known as what?
A) Denitrification
B) Volatilization
C) Mineralization
D) Immobilization
Answer: B
Explanation: Volatilization is the process where nitrogen is lost as ammonia gas.

Q71. The aroma in coffee is primarily due to which process?
A) Drying
B) Roasting
C) Fermentation
D) CO₂ application
Answer: B
Explanation: Roasting is responsible for the characteristic aroma of coffee.

Q72. Fruits that need ripening after purchase should be stored where?
A) Refrigerator
B) Room temperature
C) Dark cold place
D) Freezing
Answer: B
Explanation: Fruits that need ripening should be stored at room temperature.

Q73. In which year did Alphonso (Hapus) receive the GI tag?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Answer: C
Explanation: Alphonso mango received the GI tag in 2018.

Q74. Blastophagus wasps pollinate which type of fig?
A) Smyrna fig
B) Sanpedro fig
C) Common fig
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Blastophagus wasps are pollinators for Smyrna figs.

Q75. Which district in Gujarat is the largest producer of Kamalam (Dragon fruit)?
A) Porbandar
B) Jamnagar
C) Junagadh
D) Kutch
Answer: D
Explanation: Kutch is the largest district for Kamalam production in Gujarat.

Q76. What was the increase in horticulture production in India from 2001 to 2021?
A) >125%
B) >150%
C) >200%
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Horticulture production in India increased by more than 150% from 2001 to 2021.

Q77. Which of the following is an example of a variable cost in agriculture?
A) Machinery
B) Seed & fertilizers
C) Insurance
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Seed and fertilizers are considered variable costs in agriculture.

Q78. Which reforms are needed for e-NAM integration?
A) Single license
B) Single market fee
C) Provision for e-auction
D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: All listed reforms are necessary for effective e-NAM integration.

Q79. What is the major pollinator in durian?
A) Bees
B) Ants
C) Bats
D) Wasp
Answer: C
Explanation: Bats are the primary pollinators for durian trees.

Q80. Which is a variety of Bael?
A) Goma Kirti
B) Goma Prateek
C) Goma Priyanka
D) Goma Yashi
Answer: C
Explanation: Goma Priyanka is a recognized variety of Bael.

Q81. Which tree is heavily pruned?
A) Mango
B) Fig
C) Litchi
D) Ber
Answer: D
Explanation: Ber trees are known to be heavily pruned to maintain shape and productivity.

Q82. The Agri Produce (Grading & Marketing) Act 1937 provides what?
A) Third-party guarantee
B) Producer assurance
C) APEDA certification
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: The Act provides a third-party guarantee for agricultural produce.

Q83. In which year was the Gujarat Agro Industries Corporation Ltd established?
A) 1967
B) 1968
C) 1969
D) 1970
Answer: A
Explanation: The Gujarat Agro Industries Corporation Ltd was established in 1967.

Q84. Where is the Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) located?
A) Kozhikode
B) Mangalore
C) Thiruvananthapuram
D) Coimbatore
Answer: A
Explanation: IISR is located in Kozhikode, Kerala.

Q85. What is India’s share in world vegetable production?
A) 24%
B) 18%
C) 14%
D) 11%
Answer: A
Explanation: India contributes 24% to the world’s vegetable production.

Q86. What is the soil type in Navsari?
A) Heavy black poor drainage
B) Sandy loam shallow
C) Heavy black waterlogged
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Navsari has heavy black waterlogged soil.

Q87. In which year was the Seed Act enacted?
A) 1963
B) 1966
C) 1968
D) 1969
Answer: C
Explanation: The Seed Act was enacted in 1968.

Q88. Which greenhouse gas is primarily responsible for global warming?
A) CO₂
B) O₂
C) SO₂
D) CH₄
Answer: A
Explanation: CO₂ is the primary greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.

Q89. Waxing fruits improves what?
A) Protection from decay
B) Reduce respiration & evaporation
C) Both
D) Increase quality parameters
Answer: C
Explanation: Waxing fruits helps in protection and reduces respiration and evaporation.

Q90. Where is the Multiflora Flower Auction Centre located?
A) North America
B) South Africa
C) Italy
D) France
Answer: C
Explanation: The Multiflora Flower Auction Centre is located in Italy.

Q91. Where is the NRC for Women in Agriculture located?
A) Bhubaneswar
B) Delhi
C) Bangalore
D) Hyderabad
Answer: A
Explanation: The NRC for Women in Agriculture is located in Bhubaneswar.

Q92. What is the vector of citrus greening?
A) Papilio demolish
B) Diaphorina citri
C) Dacus dorsalis
D) Apis mellifera
Answer: B
Explanation: Diaphorina citri is the vector responsible for citrus greening.

Q93. Where was the first KVK in India established?
A) Bangalore
B) Pondicherry
C) Hyderabad
D) Pantnagar
Answer: D
Explanation: The first KVK in India was established at Pantnagar.

Q94. What does PGS refer to?
A) QA for organic agriculture stakeholders
B) QA that certifies organic production
C) QA for natural farming stakeholders
D) QA by third party for natural farming
Answer: B
Explanation: PGS refers to a quality assurance system that certifies organic production.

Q95. PMFBY supports which aspects?
A) Support for crop loss
B) Stabilize income
C) Ensure credit flow
D) All of these
Answer: D
Explanation: PMFBY supports crop loss, income stabilization, and credit flow.

Q96. Where is ICAR-CIPHET located?
A) Delhi
B) Mysore
C) Nagpur
D) Ludhiana
Answer: D
Explanation: ICAR-CIPHET is located in Ludhiana.

Q97. What does WAI stand for?
A) Water Access Index
B) Water Absorption Intensity
C) Water Absorption Index
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: WAI stands for Water Absorption Index.

Q98. Which organisms produce their own food through photosynthesis?
A) Phototrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Decomposers
D) Carnivores
Answer: A
Explanation: Phototrophs synthesize food using light energy.

Q99. Organisms that depend on other organisms for food are called:
A) Phototrophs
B) Saprophytes
C) Heterotrophs
D) Autotrophs
Answer: C
Explanation: Heterotrophs feed on producers or other consumers.

Q100. Primary consumers that feed only on plants are known as:
A) Carnivores
B) Decomposers
C) Herbivores
D) Omnivores
Answer: C
Explanation: Herbivores consume plant material.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. In India, contribution of Horticulture to Agri-GDP is nearly?
A) 33%
B) 42%
C) 23%
D) 15%
Answer: A
Explanation: Horticulture contributes about 33% to India’s agricultural GDP.

Q2. CFTRI is situated at?
A) New Delhi
B) Mysore
C) Hyderabad
D) Bangalore
Answer: B
Explanation: The Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) is located in Mysore.

Q3. The square system of planting with ‘filler’ is known as?
A) Contour system
B) Hexagonal system
C) Terrace system
D) Diagonal system
Answer: D
Explanation: The diagonal system involves planting fillers in the square system.

Q4. India is NOT the largest global producer of?
A) Mango
B) Banana
C) Sapota
D) Litchi
Answer: D
Explanation: India is not the largest producer of Litchi.

Q5. Largest producer & exporter of cashew nut (2023)?
A) Côte d’Ivoire
B) China
C) India
D) USA
Answer: A
Explanation: Côte d’Ivoire is the largest producer and exporter of cashew nuts.

Q6. Cashew is native to?
A) South Africa
B) West Indies
C) Eastern Brazil
D) Madagascar
Answer: C
Explanation: Cashew is native to Eastern Brazil.

Q7. Father of Plant Taxonomy?
A) Theophrastus
B) Carolus Linnaeus
C) Armen Takhtajan
D) Tournefort
Answer: B
Explanation: Carolus Linnaeus is known as the father of plant taxonomy.

Q8. Tangerine fruit is a?
A) Balausta
B) Hesperidium
C) Capsule
D) Pepo
Answer: B
Explanation: Tangerine is classified as a hesperidium.

Q9. ‘Brown Turkey’ is a rootstock of?
A) Fig
B) Sapota
C) Jackfruit
D) Avocado
Answer: A
Explanation: ‘Brown Turkey’ is a rootstock commonly used for figs.

Q10. Tissue important for graft union in dicots?
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Cambium
D) Cortex
Answer: C
Explanation: Cambium is crucial for successful grafting in dicots.

Q11. Basic unit of plant taxonomy?
A) Specimen
B) Cultivar
C) Species
D) Variety
Answer: C
Explanation: Species is the basic unit of plant taxonomy.

Q12. Metaxenia is common in?
A) Aonla
B) Fig
C) Date palm
D) Bael
Answer: C
Explanation: Metaxenia is commonly observed in date palms.

Q13. Loquat trees are?
A) Deciduous temperate
B) Annual tropical
C) Biennial arid
D) Evergreen subtropical
Answer: D
Explanation: Loquat trees are evergreen and subtropical.

Q14. Chinese date = ?
A) Aonla
B) Avocado
C) Kiwifruit
D) Ber
Answer: D
Explanation: Ber is commonly referred to as the Chinese date.

Q15. Vernalization is perceived by?
A) Leaf
B) Shoot apex
C) Stem
D) Flower
Answer: B
Explanation: Vernalization is perceived by the shoot apex.

Q16. Astringent persimmon cultivar?
A) Fuyu
B) Jiro
C) Hachiya
D) Gosho
Answer: C
Explanation: Hachiya is an astringent cultivar of persimmon.

Q17. Cultivar ‘Jolo’ belongs to?
A) Apple
B) Pineapple
C) Cherry
D) Mangosteen
Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Jolo’ is a cultivar of cherry.

Q18. Apetalous flowers occur in?
A) Passion fruit
B) Persimmon
C) Litchi
D) Avocado
Answer: C
Explanation: Litchi flowers are apetalous.

Q19. Best HDDP performing group?
A) Banana, Papaya, Apple, Pineapple
B) Mango, Banana, Citrus, Pineapple
C) Papaya, Dragon fruit, Jamun, Litchi
D) Litchi, Mango, Citrus, Guava
Answer: B
Explanation: Mango, Banana, Citrus, and Pineapple perform best in high-density planting.

Q20. Skirting & pruning recommended in?
A) Mango
B) Citrus
C) Grapes
D) Ber
Answer: D
Explanation: Skirting and pruning are recommended for Ber trees.

Q21. Edible part of litchi?
A) Fleshy receptacle
B) Fleshy thalamus
C) Fleshy outgrowth of seed
D) Fleshy peduncle
Answer: C
Explanation: The aril, a fleshy outgrowth of the seed, is the edible part of litchi.

Q22. Epigeal germination in?
A) Citrus
B) Papaya
C) Guava
D) Cashew
Answer: D
Explanation: Cashew exhibits epigeal germination.

Q23. Sib-mating popularly done in?
A) Papaya
B) Apple
C) Citrus
D) Almond
Answer: A
Explanation: Sib-mating is commonly practiced in papaya breeding.

Q24. Incorrect statement about dragon fruit flower:
A) Large
B) Actinomorphic
C) Nocturnal
D) Diurnal
Answer: D
Explanation: Dragon fruit flowers are nocturnal, not diurnal.

Q25. Natural farming formulation for flower/fruit drop?
A) Khatti lassi
B) Septdhanankur ark
C) Dasparni ark
D) Brahmastra
Answer: C
Explanation: Dasparni ark is used to prevent flower and fruit drop.

Q26. Nectarine cultivar combination:
A) Early Grande, Flordasun
B) Sunrise, May Fire
C) Sharbati, Shan-i-Punjab
D) May Gold, July Elberta
Answer: B
Explanation: Sunrise and May Fire are nectarine cultivars.

Q27. Banana variety used for baby food:
A) Nendran
B) Pey Kunnan
C) Robusta
D) Poovan
Answer: B
Explanation: Pey Kunnan is a banana variety used for baby food.

Q28. ‘Alucha Purple’ is:
A) Peach
B) Plum
C) Apple
D) Cherry
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘Alucha Purple’ is a variety of plum.

Q29. Best rootstock for sapota:
A) Rayan
B) Adam’s apple
C) Mahua
D) Mee tree
Answer: A
Explanation: Rayan is considered the best rootstock for sapota.

Q30. Fruit useful for curing diabetes:
A) Apricot
B) Bael
C) Guava
D) Jamun
Answer: D
Explanation: Jamun is known for its benefits in managing diabetes.

Q31. Bael: flowering → harvesting duration:
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 11 months
D) 16 months
Answer: B
Explanation: Bael takes about 12 months from flowering to harvest.

Q32. Prunes are:
A) Dried peaches
B) Dried plum
C) Dried apricot
D) Dried grapes
Answer: B
Explanation: Prunes are dried plums.

Q33. Late variety of sweet orange:
A) Hamlin
B) Jaffa
C) Pineapple
D) Valencia
Answer: D
Explanation: Valencia is a late-maturing variety of sweet orange.

Q34. Graphiola leaf spot occurs in?
A) Date palm
B) Ber
C) Aonla
D) Annona
Answer: A
Explanation: Graphiola leaf spot is a disease affecting date palms.

Q35. Amorphophallus paeoniifolius:
A) Colocasia
B) Patchouli
C) Elephant foot yam
D) Artichoke
Answer: C
Explanation: Amorphophallus paeoniifolius is commonly known as elephant foot yam.

Q36. No tropical variety in?
A) Radish
B) Carrot
C) Turnip
D) Beet
Answer: C
Explanation: Turnip does not have a tropical variety.

Q37. ‘Kufri Sheetman’ is:
A) Ginger
B) Turmeric
C) Sweet potato
D) Potato
Answer: D
Explanation: ‘Kufri Sheetman’ is a variety of potato.

Q38. Cucurbit crop:
A) Chilli
B) Squash
C) Drumstick
D) Asparagus
Answer: B
Explanation: Squash is a member of the cucurbit family.

Q39. French breakfast is a variety of?
A) Okra
B) Radish
C) Cowpea
D) All
Answer: B
Explanation: ‘French breakfast’ is a variety of radish.

Q40. Tomato variety RKMT evolved through?
A) X-rays
B) Gamma rays
C) EMS
D) MMS
Answer: C
Explanation: The RKMT variety of tomato was developed using EMS.

Q41. Cryopreservation temp:
A) 200°C
B) 0°C
C) -196°C
D) °C
Answer: C
Explanation: Cryopreservation is typically done at -196°C using liquid nitrogen.

Q42. Critical weed competition in brussel sprout:
A) 50–60 DAT
B) 20–30 DAT
C) 30–50 DAT
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Weed competition is critical between 30–50 days after transplanting.

Q43. Browning in cauliflower corrected by:
A) Ammonium molybdate
B) Boric acid
C) Zinc sulphate
D) Urea
Answer: A
Explanation: Ammonium molybdate is used to correct browning in cauliflower.

Q44. Whiptail in acidic soil corrected by:
A) Lime application
B) Gypsum
C) N application
D) Cu application
Answer: A
Explanation: Lime application corrects whiptail in acidic soils.

Q45. Bt brinjal is against?
A) Fruit fly
B) Aphid
C) White fly
D) Borer
Answer: D
Explanation: Bt brinjal is genetically modified to resist borers.

Q46. Isolation distance (foundation seed) in chilli:
A) 500 m
B) 300 m
C) 200 m
D) 100 m
Answer: A
Explanation: A 500 m isolation distance is recommended for foundation seed in chilli.

Q47. Flower vegetables:
A) Cauliflower
B) Broccoli
C) Globe artichoke
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Cauliflower, broccoli, and globe artichoke are all flower vegetables.

Q48. Turmeric antioxidant due to:
A) Quercetin
B) Curcumin
C) Capsaicin
D) Cucurbitacin
Answer: B
Explanation: Curcumin is the antioxidant compound found in turmeric.

Q49. Capsaicin in chilli (%):
A) 0.1%
B) 0.2%
C) 0.3%
D) 0.4%
Answer: A
Explanation: Capsaicin is typically around 0.1% in chilli.

Q50. Cynogas pump is:
A) Sprayer
B) Duster
C) Flame thrower
D) Fumigator
Answer: C
Explanation: A cynogas pump is used as a flame thrower.

Q51. Wind-pollinated crop:
A) Beets
B) Spinach
C) Amaranth
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Beets, spinach, and amaranth are all wind-pollinated.

Q52. Often cross-pollinated:
A) Cowpea
B) French bean
C) Tomato
D) Chilli
Answer: A
Explanation: Cowpea is often cross-pollinated.

Q53. Cross pollination in brinjal due to:
A) Heterostyly
B) Chasmogamy
C) Cleistogamy
D) Homogamy
Answer: B
Explanation: Brinjal cross-pollination is largely due to chasmogamy.

Q54. Leaves & petiole edible in:
A) Sweet potato
B) Colocasia
C) Elephant foot yam
D) Potato
Answer: A
Explanation: The leaves and petioles of sweet potato are edible.

Q55. Spice traded mostly as:
A) Whole
B) Powdered
C) Essential oil
D) Spice mixture
Answer: A
Explanation: Spices are mostly traded in whole form.

Q56. Catface disorder in?
A) Tomato
B) Brinjal
C) Onion
D) Chilli
Answer: A
Explanation: Catface disorder is a common issue in tomatoes.

Q57. Pithiness due to:
A) Excessive root growth
B) Nutrient deficiency
C) Both
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Pithiness can be due to both excessive root growth and nutrient deficiency.

Q58. Celery black heart → deficiency of:
A) Boron
B) Calcium
C) Zinc
D) Manganese
Answer: B
Explanation: Celery black heart is caused by calcium deficiency.

Q59. Kale sensitive to:
A) High acidic
B) High saline
C) Both
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Kale is sensitive to both high acidic and saline conditions.

Q60. Akashin in radish due to:
A) Nitrogen
B) Boron
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
Answer: B
Explanation: Akashin in radish is due to boron deficiency.

Q61. Gujarat vegetable contribution:
A) 5%
B) 6%
C) 9%
D) 11%
Answer: C
Explanation: Gujarat contributes 9% to India’s vegetable production.

Q62. CFMV- (Gira) is variety of:
A) Finger millet
B) Ginger
C) Turmeric
D) Little millet
Answer: A
Explanation: CFMV- (Gira) is a variety of finger millet.

Q63. Basella alba is:
A) C3
B) C4
C) CAM
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Basella alba uses the CAM photosynthetic pathway.

Q64. Dioecious cucurbit:
A) Pumpkin
B) Bottle gourd
C) Pointed gourd
D) Snake gourd
Answer: C
Explanation: Pointed gourd is a dioecious cucurbit.

Q65. Ideal rainfall for turmeric:
A) 500–800 mm
B) 700–1000 mm
C) 1200–1500 mm
D) 1500–2000 mm
Answer: B
Explanation: Turmeric thrives best with 700–1000 mm of rainfall.

Q66. Leafless pea:
A) Arkel
B) Azad pea-I
C) L-116
D) Aparna
Answer: C
Explanation: L-116 is a leafless variety of pea.

Q67. Karyokinesis =
A) Cellular division
B) Nuclear division
C) Meiosis
D) Chromosome thickening
Answer: B
Explanation: Karyokinesis refers to nuclear division.

Q68. F1 × pure parent =
A) F2 cross
B) Test cross
C) Back cross
D) Homozygous cross
Answer: C
Explanation: Crossing F1 with a pure parent results in a backcross.

Q69. Brinjal native to:
A) India
B) Africa
C) America
D) China
Answer: A
Explanation: Brinjal, or eggplant, is native to India.

Q70. Ornamental okra ‘Anand Shobha’ for:
A) Pot culture
B) Hedge
C) Both
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: ‘Anand Shobha’ is suitable for both pot culture and hedges.

Q71. Trees NOT preferred roadside:
A) Millingtonia
B) Jamun
C) Albizia
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Millingtonia, Jamun, and Albizia are not preferred for roadside planting.

Q72. Large cardamom chemical:
A) Cineol
B) Linalool
C) Gingerol
D) Oleoresin
Answer: A
Explanation: Cineol is a chemical found in large cardamom.

Q73. Richest iodine vegetable:
A) Okra
B) Radish
C) Ginger
D) Garlic
Answer: D
Explanation: Garlic is the richest vegetable source of iodine.

Q74. Cumin & fennel district:
A) Palanpur
B) Junagadh
C) Ahmedabad
D) Kutch
Answer: A
Explanation: Palanpur is known for cumin and fennel cultivation.

Q75. Richest folic acid:
A) Green leafy vegetables
B) Root veg
C) Cole crops
D) Rhizomes
Answer: A
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are the richest in folic acid.

Q76. Celery toxin:
A) Psoralens
B) Solasodine
C) Dioscorine
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Psoralens are toxins found in celery.

Q77. Coriander inflorescence:
A) Raceme
B) Corymb
C) Spadix
D) Umbel
Answer: D
Explanation: Coriander has an umbel type of inflorescence.

Q78. Best region for coriander seed quality:
A) Cold region
B) Warm region
C) Low altitude
D) A & C
Answer: D
Explanation: Cold regions and low altitudes are best for coriander seed quality.

Q79. Sex chromosomes =
A) Autosomes
B) Allosomes
C) Lysosomes
D) Ribosomes
Answer: B
Explanation: Sex chromosomes are also known as allosomes.

Q80. F1 × recessive parent =
A) Reciprocal
B) Test cross
C) Top cross
D) Back cross
Answer: B
Explanation: Crossing F1 with a recessive parent results in a test cross.

Q81. Pollen + pollen tube =
A) Microspore
B) Sperm
C) Megaspore
D) Male gametophyte
Answer: D
Explanation: Pollen and pollen tube together form the male gametophyte.

Q82. Diploid 20 → mitosis daughter cell:
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 80
Answer: B
Explanation: Mitosis results in daughter cells with the same diploid number, 20.

Q83. Greenhouse direction (<40°N): A) East–West B) West–North C) North–South D) North–West Answer: A Explanation: Greenhouses are oriented East–West to maximize sunlight. Q84. T-bar trellis in: A) Cherry B) Almond C) Avocado D) Kiwifruit Answer: D Explanation: T-bar trellis is commonly used in kiwifruit cultivation. Q85. Ornamental creeper: A) Ficus repens B) Phlox stolonifera C) Thymus serpyllum D) All Answer: D Explanation: Ficus repens, Phlox stolonifera, and Thymus serpyllum are ornamental creepers. Q86. Flower colour of vanilla: A) Pink B) White C) Yellow D) Creamy white Answer: D Explanation: Vanilla flowers are creamy white in color. Q87. Citrus granulation caused by: A) Climate B) Nutrition C) Enzymes & PGRs D) All Answer: D Explanation: Citrus granulation can be caused by climate, nutrition, and enzymes. Q88. Little leaf in apple due to deficiency: A) Boron B) Copper C) Mo D) Zinc Answer: D Explanation: Little leaf in apples is caused by zinc deficiency. Q89. Shoot tip culture & mini crown grafting in: A) Mango B) Jackfruit C) Guava D) Citrus Answer: B Explanation: Jackfruit propagation often uses shoot tip culture and mini crown grafting. Q90. Exanthema in citrus due to: A) Zn B) Cu C) Mo D) K Answer: B Explanation: Exanthema in citrus is due to copper deficiency. Q91. Browning in apple due to enzyme: A) Hydrolases B) Polygalacturonase C) Peroxidase D) Polyphenol oxidase Answer: D Explanation: Polyphenol oxidase causes browning in apples. Q92. Puffing disorder in: A) Mandarin B) Lime C) Lemon D) Sweet orange Answer: A Explanation: Puffing disorder is common in mandarins. Q93. Limp neck disorder in: A) Carnation B) Chrysanthemum C) Rose D) Gladiolus Answer: C Explanation: Limp neck disorder is observed in roses. Q94. Father of canning: A) PB Lal B) Randhawa C) Frost D) Nicholas Appert Answer: D Explanation: Nicholas Appert is known as the father of canning. Q95. Older leaves, marginal chlorosis, inverted green V: A) Mn B) B C) K D) Mg Answer: C Explanation: Potassium deficiency causes these symptoms. Q96. Secondary elements: A) C,H,O B) N,P,K C) Ca,Mg,S D) B,Mn,Cu Answer: C Explanation: Calcium, magnesium, and sulfur are secondary nutrients for plants. Q97. California poppy: A) Short day B) Long day C) Day neutral D) Quantitative short day Answer: B Explanation: California poppy is a long day plant. Q98. Acta Horticulturae published by: A) ASHS B) ISHS C) JSHS D) HIS Answer: B Explanation: Acta Horticulturae is published by ISHS. Q99. NRC for orchids: A) Pakyong B) Darjeeling C) Coimbatore D) Kaziranga Answer: A Explanation: The National Research Centre for Orchids is located in Pakyong. Q100. Arka Savi rose released by: A) IIHR Bangalore B) IARI Delhi C) NAU D) AAU Answer: A Explanation: Arka Savi rose was released by IIHR Bangalore.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. Which one of the following is an anemophilous crop?
A) Peas
B) Spinach
C) Beans
D) Methi
Answer: B
Explanation: Spinach is pollinated by wind, making it an anemophilous crop.

Q2. Which one of the following is NOT a critical stage for irrigation in ware potato?
A) Stolon formation
B) Tuber initiation
C) Tuber development
D) Flowering stage
Answer: D
Explanation: The flowering stage is not critical for irrigation in ware potatoes.

Q3. In protected conditions, crops preferred are:
A) High value
B) Low volume & high value
C) Low volume
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Low volume and high value crops are preferred in protected conditions due to space and economic considerations.

Q4. IFOAM (Organic Agriculture Movement) was established in:
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1973
Answer: C
Explanation: IFOAM was established in 1972 to promote organic agriculture worldwide.

Q5. Asexual progeny of a single homozygous plant is:
A) Variety
B) Race
C) Strain
D) Clone
Answer: D
Explanation: A clone is an asexual progeny of a single homozygous plant.

Q6. Hybrids are not common in pea because:
A) High seed rate
B) Cross-pollinated
C) Often cross-pollinated
D) None
Answer: D
Explanation: Peas are self-pollinating, making hybridization uncommon.

Q7. Shelf-life is best under:
A) Low temp + High RH
B) High temp + High RH
C) Low temp + Low RH
D) All
Answer: A
Explanation: Low temperature and high relative humidity extend shelf-life by reducing spoilage.

Q8. Economic heterosis is estimated over:
A) Wild parent
B) Best standard check
C) Mid-parent
D) Popular hybrid
Answer: B
Explanation: Economic heterosis is typically measured against the best standard check variety.

Q9. Complete heterozygosity & heterogeneity is found in:
A) F1 hybrids
B) Pure line
C) Multiline
D) Synthetics
Answer: A
Explanation: F1 hybrids exhibit complete heterozygosity and heterogeneity.

Q10. Protected structure orientation is typically:
A) North-South
B) East-North
C) South-East
D) West-North
Answer: A
Explanation: A North-South orientation maximizes sunlight exposure throughout the day.

Q11. Tetrazolium viable seed color is:
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red
D) Black
Answer: C
Explanation: Red indicates viable seeds when using the Tetrazolium test.

Q12. Tabasco pepper belongs to which species?
A) Capsicum annuum
B) Capsicum pendulum
C) Capsicum frutescens
D) Capsicum chinense
Answer: C
Explanation: Tabasco pepper is a variety of Capsicum frutescens.

Q13. Which plant has an inferior ovary?
A) Okra
B) Tomato
C) Bottle gourd
D) Brinjal
Answer: C
Explanation: Bottle gourd has an inferior ovary, where the ovary is below the attachment of other floral parts.

Q14. Which crop is salinity tolerant?
A) Carrot
B) Okra
C) Onion
D) Sugar beet
Answer: D
Explanation: Sugar beet is known for its tolerance to saline conditions.

Q15. Single seed descent is equivalent to:
A) Modified bulk method
B) Pedigree method
C) Backcross method
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Single seed descent is a method similar to the modified bulk method.

Q16. SRR is 100% in which crop?
A) Bell pepper
B) Cauliflower
C) Tomato
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Cauliflower can achieve a 100% seed replacement rate (SRR).

Q17. Extreme desiccation occurs at moisture:
A) Greater than 10%
B) Less than 10%
C) 6%
D) 6–8%
Answer: B
Explanation: Extreme desiccation typically occurs when moisture content is less than 10%.

Q18. Rajat Rekha is a cultivar of:
A) Antirrhinum
B) Tuberose
C) Rose
D) Carnation
Answer: B
Explanation: Rajat Rekha is a well-known cultivar of Tuberose.

Q19. Tissue culture helps in:
A) Faster multiplication
B) True-to-type
C) Disease-free plants
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Tissue culture aids in faster multiplication, maintaining true-to-type plants, and producing disease-free plants.

Q20. Hybrid Tea roses are a cross between:
A) HP × Polyantha
B) HT × Floribunda
C) HP × Tea rose
D) HP × Floribunda
Answer: C
Explanation: Hybrid Tea roses are typically a cross between Hybrid Perpetual (HP) and Tea rose.

Q21. Carnation pests include:
A) Mite
B) Helicoverpa
C) Thrips
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Carnations can be affected by mites, Helicoverpa, and thrips.

Q22. Calcutta Single & Double are varieties of:
A) Marigold
B) Anthurium
C) Antirrhinum
D) Tuberose
Answer: D
Explanation: Calcutta Single & Double are varieties of Tuberose.

Q23. Petal burn in chrysanthemum is due to deficiency of:
A) Cu
B) K
C) Ca
D) B
Answer: D
Explanation: Boron deficiency is known to cause petal burn in chrysanthemums.

Q24. Asiatic hybrids of Lilium are known for:
A) Fragrant lilies
B) Parrot lilies
C) Coloured lilies
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Asiatic hybrids of Lilium are renowned for their vibrant colors.

Q25. Orchids growing on trees are called:
A) Epiphytes
B) Lithophytes
C) Terrestrial
D) Saprophytes
Answer: A
Explanation: Epiphytes are plants that grow on other plants, such as orchids growing on trees.

Q26. Which of the following is a C4 plant?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Wheat
D) Barley
Answer: B
Explanation: Maize is a C4 plant, which is efficient in photosynthesis under high light and temperature.

Q27. Which crop is known for nitrogen fixation?
A) Maize
B) Soybean
C) Wheat
D) Barley
Answer: B
Explanation: Soybean, being a legume, is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Q28. Which of the following is a rabi crop?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Wheat
D) Millet
Answer: C
Explanation: Wheat is typically grown as a rabi crop, sown in winter and harvested in spring.

Q29. Which soil is best for cotton cultivation?
A) Alluvial
B) Black
C) Red
D) Laterite
Answer: B
Explanation: Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is ideal for cotton cultivation.

Q30. Which of the following is a micronutrient for plants?
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorus
C) Potassium
D) Zinc
Answer: D
Explanation: Zinc is a micronutrient essential for plant growth.

Q31. Which crop is primarily grown in loamy soil?
A) Rice
B) Cotton
C) Wheat
D) Sugarcane
Answer: D
Explanation: Sugarcane thrives in loamy soil due to its good drainage and fertility.

Q32. Which of the following is a kharif crop?
A) Wheat
B) Barley
C) Rice
D) Oats
Answer: C
Explanation: Rice is a kharif crop, sown with the onset of the monsoon.

Q33. Which plant hormone is responsible for fruit ripening?
A) Auxin
B) Gibberellin
C) Ethylene
D) Cytokinin
Answer: C
Explanation: Ethylene is responsible for the ripening of fruits.

Q34. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
A) Maize
B) Soybean
C) Rice
D) Wheat
Answer: B
Explanation: Soybean is a leguminous crop, known for its ability to fix nitrogen.

Q35. Which crop is known as ‘King of Cereals’?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Wheat
D) Barley
Answer: C
Explanation: Wheat is often referred to as the ‘King of Cereals’ due to its global importance.

Q36. Which of the following is a major oilseed crop?
A) Wheat
B) Soybean
C) Rice
D) Barley
Answer: B
Explanation: Soybean is a major oilseed crop, widely cultivated for its oil and protein content.

Q37. Which crop is known for its high water requirement?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Barley
D) Millet
Answer: B
Explanation: Rice requires a high amount of water for cultivation, typically grown in flooded fields.

Q38. Which of the following is a fiber crop?
A) Wheat
B) Cotton
C) Rice
D) Soybean
Answer: B
Explanation: Cotton is a fiber crop, cultivated for its soft and fluffy fibers.

Q39. Which of the following is a warm-season crop?
A) Wheat
B) Barley
C) Maize
D) Oats
Answer: C
Explanation: Maize is a warm-season crop, thriving in warm temperatures.

Q40. Which crop is associated with the Green Revolution?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Maize
D) Barley
Answer: A
Explanation: Wheat played a significant role in the Green Revolution, leading to increased yields.

Q41. Which of the following is a horticultural crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Apple
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Apple is a horticultural crop, grown for its fruit.

Q42. Which crop is known for its drought resistance?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Millet
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Millet is known for its ability to withstand drought conditions.

Q43. Which of the following is a tuber crop?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Potato
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Potato is a tuber crop, grown for its edible underground tubers.

Q44. Which crop is known as ‘Golden Fiber’?
A) Cotton
B) Jute
C) Silk
D) Wool
Answer: B
Explanation: Jute is referred to as ‘Golden Fiber’ due to its color and economic value.

Q45. Which of the following is a major pulse crop?
A) Maize
B) Rice
C) Chickpea
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Chickpea is a major pulse crop, rich in protein.

Q46. Which crop is primarily grown in sandy soil?
A) Rice
B) Cotton
C) Wheat
D) Groundnut
Answer: D
Explanation: Groundnut grows well in sandy soil due to its good drainage properties.

Q47. Which of the following is a perennial crop?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Sugarcane
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Sugarcane is a perennial crop, harvested multiple times from the same planting.

Q48. Which crop is known for its high protein content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Soybean
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Soybean is renowned for its high protein content, making it a valuable food source.

Q49. Which of the following is a major cereal crop?
A) Soybean
B) Rice
C) Cotton
D) Groundnut
Answer: B
Explanation: Rice is a major cereal crop, serving as a staple food for a large portion of the world’s population.

Q50. Which crop is known for its high oil content?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Soybean
D) Barley
Answer: C
Explanation: Soybean is known for its high oil content, widely used in cooking and industry.

Q51. Which of the following is a winter crop?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Wheat
D) Millet
Answer: C
Explanation: Wheat is typically grown as a winter crop, sown in cooler months.

Q52. Which crop is known for its high carbohydrate content?
A) Rice
B) Soybean
C) Cotton
D) Groundnut
Answer: A
Explanation: Rice is rich in carbohydrates, making it a primary energy source.

Q53. Which of the following is a summer crop?
A) Wheat
B) Barley
C) Maize
D) Oats
Answer: C
Explanation: Maize is a summer crop, thriving in warm temperatures.

Q54. Which crop is known for its medicinal properties?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Aloe Vera
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Aloe Vera is known for its medicinal properties, used in skincare and healing.

Q55. Which of the following is a cash crop?
A) Wheat
B) Cotton
C) Rice
D) Chickpea
Answer: B
Explanation: Cotton is a cash crop, cultivated for its economic value.

Q56. Which crop is primarily grown in clayey soil?
A) Rice
B) Cotton
C) Wheat
D) Groundnut
Answer: A
Explanation: Rice is often grown in clayey soil, which retains water well.

Q57. Which of the following is an annual crop?
A) Sugarcane
B) Apple
C) Rice
D) Mango
Answer: C
Explanation: Rice is an annual crop, completing its life cycle in one growing season.

Q58. Which crop is known for its high fiber content?
A) Rice
B) Soybean
C) Cotton
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Cotton is known for its high fiber content, used in textiles.

Q59. Which of the following is a major fruit crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Apple
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Apple is a major fruit crop, grown for its edible fruit.

Q60. Which crop is known for its high vitamin C content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Orange
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Orange is rich in vitamin C, an essential nutrient.

Q61. Which of the following is a major vegetable crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Tomato
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Tomato is a major vegetable crop, widely cultivated for its fruit.

Q62. Which crop is known for its high iron content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Spinach
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Spinach is known for its high iron content, beneficial for health.

Q63. Which of the following is a major spice crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Pepper
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Pepper is a major spice crop, used for flavoring food.

Q64. Which crop is known for its high calcium content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Broccoli
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Broccoli is high in calcium, important for bone health.

Q65. Which of the following is a major nut crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Almond
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Almond is a major nut crop, valued for its nutritional content.

Q66. Which crop is known for its high potassium content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Banana
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Banana is rich in potassium, beneficial for heart health.

Q67. Which of the following is a major root crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Carrot
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Carrot is a major root crop, grown for its edible root.

Q68. Which crop is known for its high vitamin A content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Carrot
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Carrot is rich in vitamin A, important for vision and immune function.

Q69. Which of the following is a major oil crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Sunflower
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Sunflower is a major oil crop, cultivated for its seeds and oil.

Q70. Which crop is known for its high magnesium content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Spinach
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Spinach is high in magnesium, essential for many bodily functions.

Q71. Which of the following is a major berry crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Strawberry
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Strawberry is a major berry crop, grown for its sweet fruit.

Q72. Which crop is known for its high zinc content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Pumpkin seeds
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Pumpkin seeds are rich in zinc, important for immune health.

Q73. Which of the following is a major tuber crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Sweet potato
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Sweet potato is a major tuber crop, valued for its nutritional content.

Q74. Which crop is known for its high vitamin B content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Lentils
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Lentils are high in vitamin B, important for energy metabolism.

Q75. Which of the following is a major legume crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Peanut
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Peanut is a major legume crop, known for its protein and oil content.

Q76. Which crop is known for its high folate content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Asparagus
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Asparagus is rich in folate, important for DNA synthesis and repair.

Q77. Which of the following is a major grain crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Quinoa
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Quinoa is a major grain crop, known for its high protein content.

Q78. Which crop is known for its high selenium content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Brazil nuts
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Brazil nuts are exceptionally high in selenium, an important antioxidant.

Q79. Which of the following is a major leafy vegetable crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Lettuce
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Lettuce is a major leafy vegetable crop, widely consumed in salads.

Q80. Which crop is known for its high copper content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Liver
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Liver is rich in copper, essential for iron metabolism.

Q81. Which of the following is a major herb crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Basil
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Basil is a major herb crop, used for its aromatic leaves.

Q82. Which crop is known for its high manganese content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Pineapple
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Pineapple is high in manganese, important for bone health and metabolism.

Q83. Which of the following is a major citrus crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Lemon
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Lemon is a major citrus crop, valued for its juice and flavor.

Q84. Which crop is known for its high antioxidant content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Blueberries
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, beneficial for health.

Q85. Which of the following is a major vine crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Grapes
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Grapes are a major vine crop, grown for wine and fresh consumption.

Q86. Which crop is known for its high omega-3 content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Flaxseed
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Flaxseed is high in omega-3 fatty acids, beneficial for heart health.

Q87. Which of the following is a major flower crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Rose
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Rose is a major flower crop, cultivated for its beauty and fragrance.

Q88. Which crop is known for its high vitamin E content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Almonds
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Almonds are high in vitamin E, important for skin health.

Q89. Which of the following is a major nut crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Cashew
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Cashew is a major nut crop, valued for its edible seeds.

Q90. Which crop is known for its high vitamin K content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Kale
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Kale is rich in vitamin K, important for blood clotting.

Q91. Which of the following is a major tuber crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Yam
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Yam is a major tuber crop, grown for its starchy tubers.

Q92. Which crop is known for its high vitamin D content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Mushrooms
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Mushrooms are one of the few plant sources of vitamin D.

Q93. Which of the following is a major fruit crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Banana
D) Rice
Answer: C
Explanation: Banana is a major fruit crop, widely consumed around the world.

Q94. Which crop is known for its high vitamin B12 content?
A) Rice
B) Maize
C) Animal liver
D) Wheat
Answer: C
Explanation: Animal liver is high in vitamin B12, essential for nerve function.

Q95. Which of the following is a major grain crop?
A) Wheat
B) Maize
C) Barley
D) Rice
Answer: B
Explanation: Maize is a major grain crop, used for food, feed, and industrial products.

Q96. Which organisms produce their own food through photosynthesis?
A) Phototrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Decomposers
D) Carnivores
Answer: A
Explanation: Phototrophs synthesize food using light energy.

Q97. Organisms that depend on other organisms for food are called:
A) Phototrophs
B) Saprophytes
C) Heterotrophs
D) Autotrophs
Answer: C
Explanation: Heterotrophs feed on producers or other consumers.

Q98. Primary consumers that feed only on plants are known as:
A) Carnivores
B) Decomposers
C) Herbivores
D) Omnivores
Answer: C
Explanation: Herbivores consume plant material.

Q99. Which organisms break down dead organic matter and wastes?
A) Producers
B) Herbivores
C) Carnivores
D) Decomposers
Answer: D
Explanation: Decomposers recycle nutrients by breaking down organic matter.

Q100. Which organisms produce their own food through photosynthesis?
A) Phototrophs
B) Heterotrophs
C) Decomposers
D) Carnivores
Answer: A
Explanation: Phototrophs synthesize food using light energy.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. Partial ringing of branches above a dormant lateral bud is known as
A) Ringing
B) Notching
C) Smudging
D) Nicking
Answer: B
Explanation: Notching is a technique used to stimulate bud growth.

Q2. Epigeous germination is found in which of the following fruit crops?
A) Mango
B) Tamarind
C) Cashewnut
D) All of these
Answer: B
Explanation: Tamarind exhibits epigeous germination where the cotyledons emerge above the soil.

Q3. The development of seed portion viz. two polar nuclei + sperm nucleus results into which of the following fruit organ?
A) Seed coat
B) Perisperm
C) Endosperm
D) Zygote
Answer: C
Explanation: The fusion of two polar nuclei with a sperm nucleus forms the endosperm.

Q4. Which of the following fruit seeds based on storage behavior is classified as recalcitrant seed?
A) Passion fruit
B) Date palm
C) Jackfruit
D) Phalsa
Answer: C
Explanation: Jackfruit seeds are classified as recalcitrant, meaning they do not survive drying or freezing.

Q5. Which of the following methods is a renovation/rejuvenation grafting?
A) Tongue grafting
B) Buttress grafting
C) Side-veneer grafting
D) Epicotyl grafting
Answer: B
Explanation: Buttress grafting is used for rejuvenating old trees.

Q6. Peach scion grafted on plum rootstock results in which type of incompatibility?
A) Partial incompatibility
B) Translocalised incompatibility
C) Localised incompatibility
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Localised incompatibility occurs when the scion and rootstock are not fully compatible.

Q7. Post-set fruit drop is a major problem in commercial cultivation of
A) Guava
B) Litchi
C) Sapota
D) Mango
Answer: B
Explanation: Litchi is known for significant post-set fruit drop issues.

Q8. The National Seed Corporation was established in the year
A) 1983
B) 1975
C) 1970
D) 1963
Answer: D
Explanation: The National Seed Corporation was established in 1963.

Q9. Based on photoperiodic response, ‘Papaya’ is classified under as
A) Long-day plant
B) Short-day plant
C) Day-neutral plant
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Papaya is classified as a day-neutral plant, not dependent on day length.

Q10. Which of the following has the lateral fruit buds having inflorescence with leafy shoots in leaf axils?
A) Avocado
B) Citrus
C) Guava
D) Mango
Answer: C
Explanation: Guava has lateral fruit buds that produce inflorescences with leafy shoots.

Q11. The Directorate of Seed Research was upgraded to Indian Institute of Seed Science in the year
A) 2014
B) 2016
C) 2004
D) 2010
Answer: D
Explanation: The upgrade occurred in 2010.

Q12. ‘Caprification’ is a type of cross-pollination found in
A) Bael
B) Fig
C) Phalsa
D) Karonda
Answer: B
Explanation: Caprification is a process of pollination specifically associated with figs.

Q13. The enzyme responsible for browning of fruits and vegetables:
A) Lipoxygenase
B) Polyphenol oxidase
C) Amylase
D) Protease
Answer: B
Explanation: Polyphenol oxidase is the enzyme that causes browning in fruits and vegetables.

Q14. NRC Grapes is located at:
A) Nagpur
B) Pune
C) Solapur
D) Trichy
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Research Centre for Grapes is located in Pune.

Q15. Environmental stimulation–induced parthenocarpy is:
A) Obligatory
B) Facultative
C) Vegetative
D) Stimulative
Answer: D
Explanation: Stimulative parthenocarpy occurs due to environmental factors.

Q16. Heating in greenhouses is due to
A) PAR
B) UV
C) Infrared
D) Microwaves
Answer: C
Explanation: Infrared radiation is primarily responsible for heating in greenhouses.

Q17. Bower training system commonly used in:
A) Grapes
B) Citrus
C) Plum
D) Guava
Answer: A
Explanation: Bower training is a common method used in grape cultivation.

Q18. HDP rootstock for apple:
A) Crab apple
B) MM 106
C) M 27
D) MM 111
Answer: C
Explanation: M 27 is a high-density planting rootstock for apple.

Q19. Mango flowering manipulation chemical:
A) NAA
B) ,-D
C) Paclobutrazol
D) GA3
Answer: C
Explanation: Paclobutrazol is used to manipulate flowering in mango.

Q20. RTS means:
A) Needs water addition
B) Low prep
C) Ready to drink
D) Freeze quickly
Answer: C
Explanation: RTS stands for Ready to Serve, indicating a beverage that is ready for consumption.

Q21. Papaya sex gene alleles:
A) M1 & M2
B) M2 & m
C) M1 & m
D) M1, M2 & m
Answer: D
Explanation: Papaya has three sex gene alleles: M1, M2, and m.

Q22. Not suitable for freezing:
A) Glass
B) Plastics
C) Paper
D) Metals
Answer: C
Explanation: Paper is not suitable for freezing as it can become brittle.

Q23. Micrografting removes:
A) Virus
B) Fungi
C) Bacteria
D) Nematodes
Answer: A
Explanation: Micrografting is effective in removing viral infections.

Q24. Seedless mango:
A) Langra
B) Alphonso
C) Amrapali
D) Sindhu
Answer: D
Explanation: Sindhu is a variety of mango that is seedless.

Q25. Pectin in ripe fruits is:
A) Pectinic acid
B) Protopectin
C) Pectic acid
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Pectin in ripe fruits is primarily in the form of pectinic acid.

Q26. Fruit thinning in peaches:
A) GA
B) IBA
C) Ethephon
D) Urea
Answer: C
Explanation: Ethephon is commonly used for thinning fruit in peaches.

Q27. Astringency in coffee due to:
A) Chicory
B) Caffeine
C) Chlorogenic acid
D) Insulin
Answer: C
Explanation: Chlorogenic acid is responsible for the astringent taste in coffee.

Q28. Vigorous grape rootstock:
A) Dogridge
B) 1613
C) Salt creek
D) Temple
Answer: A
Explanation: Dogridge is known for its vigorous growth as a grape rootstock.

Q29. Litchi propagated by:
A) Air layering
B) Cutting
C) Grafting
D) Budding
Answer: A
Explanation: Litchi is commonly propagated through air layering.

Q30. Most used part of Ashwagandha:
A) Leaves
B) Seeds
C) Roots
D) Flowers
Answer: C
Explanation: The roots of Ashwagandha are the most commonly used part for medicinal purposes.

Q31. Cauliflory in:
A) Jackfruit
B) Mango
C) Papaya
D) Guava
Answer: A
Explanation: Jackfruit exhibits cauliflory, where flowers and fruits grow directly from the trunk.

Q32. Grape berry drop controlled by:
A) 50 ppm NAA
B) 60 ppm GA
C) 20 ppm NAA
D) 40 ppm GA
Answer: A
Explanation: 50 ppm NAA is effective in controlling grape berry drop.

Q33. Auxin precursor:
A) Tryptophan
B) Terpenoids
C) Isopentenyl
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Tryptophan is a precursor for auxin synthesis in plants.

Q34. Surface pigment in mature oranges:
A) Carotene
B) Chlorophyll
C) Naringin
D) Anthocyanins
Answer: A
Explanation: Carotene is the primary pigment responsible for the orange color in mature oranges.

Q35. Pixy dwarf rootstock of:
A) Peach
B) Walnut
C) Pear
D) Plum
Answer: D
Explanation: Pixy is a dwarf rootstock used for plums.

Q36. Spring fig crop:
A) Breba
B) Ambe bahar
C) Mrig bahar
D) Haste bahar
Answer: A
Explanation: Breba is the spring crop of figs.

Q37. Kinetin induces:
A) Enlargement
B) Division
C) Internode elongation
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Kinetin is known to induce cell division in plants.

Q38. Vase-shaped training system:
A) Open center
B) Modified leader
C) Center leader
D) Bower
Answer: A
Explanation: The open center training system is vase-shaped, promoting light penetration.

Q39. Triple response caused by:
A) ABA
B) IAA
C) Ethylene
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Ethylene is responsible for the triple response in plants.

Q40. Auxin synthesis site:
A) Roots
B) Meristematic region
C) Shoots
D) None
Answer: B
Explanation: Auxins are primarily synthesized in the meristematic regions of plants.

Q41. Ex-situ:
A) Sacred groves
B) Wildlife sanctuary
C) Seed bank
D) National park
Answer: C
Explanation: Ex-situ conservation refers to preserving species outside their natural habitats, such as in seed banks.

Q42. Canopy management optimises:
A) Leaves
B) Fruits
C) Flowers
D) Roots
Answer: B
Explanation: Effective canopy management optimizes fruit production.

Q43. Natural hormone modifiers:
A) Fertilizers
B) Plant growth regulators
C) Pollen
D) Nutrients
Answer: B
Explanation: Plant growth regulators are natural substances that modify plant hormone activity.

Q44. Kinnow is:
A) King × Willow leaf
B) Lime × Lemon
C) Lemon × Lime
D) Sweet orange × Sour orange
Answer: A
Explanation: Kinnow is a hybrid of King and Willow leaf mandarin.

Q45. Male:female ratio in kiwi:
A) :9
B) :11
C) :20
D) :5
Answer: D
Explanation: The male to female ratio in kiwi is typically 1:5 for optimal pollination.

Q46. Solidifying agent:
A) Agar
B) EDTA
C) Cobalt chloride
D) Nicotinic acid
Answer: A
Explanation: Agar is commonly used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media.

Q47. Reduces soil fertility:
A) Intensive cropping
B) Intercropping
C) Rotation
D) Cover crops
Answer: A
Explanation: Intensive cropping can lead to soil fertility depletion.

Q48. Jam RH:
A) 80%
B) 70%
C) 60%
D) 50%
Answer: C
Explanation: The relative humidity (RH) for jam storage is typically around 60%.

Q49. Organic soil health best:
A) Crop rotation
B) Synthetic fertilizers
C) Black soil
D) Monoculture
Answer: A
Explanation: Crop rotation enhances soil health by preventing nutrient depletion.

Q50. Skiffing in:
A) Cocoa
B) Tea
C) Cashew
D) Coconut
Answer: B
Explanation: Skiffing refers to the harvesting technique used in tea.

Q51. Protected structure protects from:
A) Biotic stress
B) Abiotic stress
C) Both
D) Water stress
Answer: C
Explanation: Protected structures provide defense against both biotic and abiotic stresses.

Q52. Modifying environment for growth:
A) Protected cultivation
B) Sustainable agri
C) Hydroponics
D) Greenhouse cultivation
Answer: A
Explanation: Protected cultivation involves modifying the environment to enhance plant growth.

Q53. Storage issue in cashew:
A) Graining
B) Staling
C) Rancidity
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Cashew nuts can face multiple storage issues, including graining, staling, and rancidity.

Q54. Largest protected cultivation area:
A) India
B) Spain
C) China
D) Italy
Answer: C
Explanation: China has the largest area dedicated to protected cultivation.

Q55. Acid in cocoa pulp:
A) Citric
B) Tartaric
C) Malic
D) Acetic
Answer: A
Explanation: Citric acid is present in cocoa pulp.

Q56. Cellular totipotency technique:
A) Grafting
B) Tissue culture
C) Layering
D) Hybridization
Answer: B
Explanation: Tissue culture is a technique that exploits cellular totipotency.

Q57. Gene affecting multiple traits:
A) Multiple gene
B) Initial gene
C) Pleiotropy
D) Modifier gene
Answer: C
Explanation: Pleiotropy refers to a single gene influencing multiple traits.

Q58. Heterostyly increases:
A) Cross pollination
B) Self
C) Often cross
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Heterostyly promotes cross-pollination by providing different flower morphologies.

Q59. Monohybrid ratio:
A) :9
B) ::
C) 1:2:1
D) :9:7
Answer: C
Explanation: The typical monohybrid ratio in offspring is 1:2:1.

Q60. Vincristine source:
A) Datura
B) Periwinkle
C) Cinchona
D) Bursera
Answer: B
Explanation: Vincristine is an alkaloid derived from the periwinkle plant.

Q61. Pollination in unopened flower:
A) Homogamy
B) Apogamy
C) Polygamy
D) Cleistogamy
Answer: D
Explanation: Cleistogamy refers to self-pollination occurring in unopened flowers.

Q62. Alternative gene form:
A) Mutation
B) Gamete
C) Allele
D) Genotype
Answer: C
Explanation: An allele is an alternative form of a gene.

Q63. Fruit without fertilization:
A) Apomixis
B) Parthenocarpy
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Self-pollination
Answer: B
Explanation: Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization.

Q64. Genetic contaminants:
A) Volunteer plants
B) Other crops
C) Weeds
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Genetic contaminants can include volunteer plants, weeds, and other crops.

Q65. Opium poppy alkaloid:
A) Morphine
B) Codeine
C) Thebaine
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Opium poppy produces multiple alkaloids including morphine, codeine, and thebaine.

Q66. PPV&FR protection period:
A) 18 yrs
B) 15 yrs
C) 9 yrs
D) 12 yrs
Answer: B
Explanation: The protection period for PPV&FR is 15 years.

Q67. Public-domain variety:
A) Derived
B) Registered
C) Protected
D) Extant
Answer: D
Explanation: An extant variety is one that exists in the public domain.

Q68. GMS male sterile line maintained by:
A) Homozygous fertile
B) Homozygous sterile
C) Heterozygous fertile
D) Heterozygous sterile
Answer: C
Explanation: A heterozygous fertile line is used to maintain GMS male sterile lines.

Q69. Laxative plant:
A) Ashwagandha
B) Periwinkle
C) Kalmegh
D) Isabgol
Answer: D
Explanation: Isabgol (Psyllium) is well-known for its laxative properties.

Q70. Light-requiring seed:
A) Skotoblastic
B) Mesobiotic
C) Macrobiotic
D) Photoblastic
Answer: D
Explanation: Photoblastic seeds require light for germination.

Q71. Ogura CMS transfer via:
A) Protoplast fusion
B) Somatic embryogenesis
C) Embryo culture
D) Genetic engineering
Answer: A
Explanation: Ogura CMS is transferred through protoplast fusion.

Q72. Tomato seed extraction:
A) Fermentation
B) Alkali
C) Acid
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Tomato seed extraction can involve fermentation, alkali, or acid methods.

Q73. Forcing of rhubarb:
A) Summer
B) Rainy
C) Winter
D) All
Answer: C
Explanation: Rhubarb is typically forced during winter to produce early growth.

Q74. TPS technology by:
A) S. Ramanujam
B) Pushkarnath
C) S.K. Roy
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: TPS (True Potato Seed) technology was developed by S. Ramanujam.

Q75. Tendrometer used for:
A) Beans
B) Potato
C) Peas
D) Tomato
Answer: C
Explanation: A tendrometer is used for measuring the tensile strength of pea plants.

Q76. Dredging controls:
A) Parasitic weeds
B) Lantana
C) Agrestals
D) Aquatic weeds
Answer: D
Explanation: Dredging is an effective method for controlling aquatic weeds.

Q77. Trap crop:
A) Marigold
B) Sunflower
C) Maize
D) Sunn hemp
Answer: A
Explanation: Marigold is commonly used as a trap crop to attract pests away from main crops.

Q78. Okra remunerative in:
A) Summer
B) Rainy
C) Both
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Okra is particularly remunerative in summer due to favorable growing conditions.

Q79. No colour tag seed:
A) Foundation
B) Nucleus
C) Breeder
D) Registered
Answer: B
Explanation: Nucleus seeds are not tagged with color as they are the primary source for seed production.

Q80. Land-use planning:
A) Weed eradication
B) Weed control
C) Weed prevention
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Land-use planning aims to prevent the establishment of weeds.

Q81. Pollination mechanism in chekkurmanis:
A) Protoandry
B) Protogyny
C) Dichogamy
D) Self-incompatibility
Answer: C
Explanation: Dichogamy is a pollination mechanism where male and female flowers mature at different times.

Q82. NIL developed through:
A) Backcross
B) Double haploid
C) NIL
D) RIL
Answer: C
Explanation: NIL (Near Isogenic Line) is developed through specific breeding techniques.

Q83. Enhances nodulation in French bean:
A) N
B) P
C) K
D) Mn
Answer: B
Explanation: Phosphorus (P) enhances nodulation in legumes like French beans.

Q84. Pre-cooling aim:
A) Reduce microbes
B) Improve quality
C) Remove field heat
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: The primary aim of pre-cooling is to remove field heat from harvested produce.

Q85. Ethylene sensitive:
A) Tomato
B) Muskmelon
C) Both
D) Potato
Answer: C
Explanation: Both tomato and muskmelon are sensitive to ethylene, which affects ripening.

Q86. Virus eradication:
A) Meristem culture
B) Pollen culture
C) Embryo culture
D) Protoplast fusion
Answer: A
Explanation: Meristem culture is an effective method for eradicating viruses from plants.

Q87. Edible garden pea pod due to:
A) No parchment
B) No bitterness
C) Low protein
D) All
Answer: A
Explanation: The absence of parchment makes the garden pea pod edible.

Q88. Accumulating genes from parents:
A) Introgression
B) Pyramiding
C) MAS
D) Tilling
Answer: B
Explanation: Pyramiding refers to the accumulation of multiple genes from different parents.

Q89. FSSAI year:
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2013
D) 2014
Answer: A
Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) was established in 2010.

Q90. Garden pea germination:
A) IAA
B) NAA
C) GA
D) MH
Answer: C
Explanation: Gibberellic acid (GA) is commonly used to promote germination in garden peas.

Q91. Pusa Hybrid 81:
A) Cauliflower
B) Broccoli
C) Knol-khol
D) Cabbage
Answer: D
Explanation: Pusa Hybrid 81 is a hybrid variety of cabbage.

Q92. High RH blocks:
A) Fe
B) Zn
C) Ca
D) Mg
Answer: C
Explanation: High relative humidity (RH) can block calcium uptake in plants.

Q93. Brassica botrytis (cauliflower):
A) Pusa Himani & Chetaki
B) Pusa Katki & Maghi
C) PTWG & RRWT
D) Golden Acre & Pride of India
Answer: B
Explanation: Pusa Katki and Maghi are varieties of Brassica botrytis.

Q94. Sugar in cantaloupe increases during:
A) Warm days, cool nights
B) Warm days, warm nights
C) Cool days, cool nights
D) All
Answer: A
Explanation: Sugar content in cantaloupe increases during warm days followed by cool nights.

Q95. Lycopene stops above:
A) 10°C
B) 30°C
C) 25°C
D) 20°C
Answer: B
Explanation: Lycopene degradation in tomatoes occurs above 30°C.

Q96. Overcome self-incompatibility:
A) NaCl
B) K₂SO₄
C) H₂S
D) MgSO₄
Answer: A
Explanation: Sodium chloride (NaCl) can help overcome self-incompatibility in some plants.

Q97. Greenhouse weight:
A) Live load
B) Dead load
C) Roof load
D) Cladding load
Answer: B
Explanation: The dead load refers to the weight of the greenhouse structure itself.

Q98. Biofertilizer inoculation:
A) Seed treatment
B) Root dip
C) Soil treatment
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Biofertilizers can be applied through seed treatment, root dip, or soil treatment.

Q99. Onion dehydration TSS:
A) 10°B
B) 20°B
C) <10°B D) >20°B
Answer: C
Explanation: Onion dehydration typically occurs at a total soluble solids (TSS) level of less than 10°B.

Q100. Poor man’s crop:
A) Broccoli
B) Tomato
C) Garden pea
D) Brinjal
Answer: D
Explanation: Brinjal is often referred to as the ‘poor man’s crop’ due to its affordability and accessibility.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. Which state is well known for its Kinnow mandarin in India?
A) Punjab
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Haryana
Answer: A
Explanation: Punjab is famous for its Kinnow mandarin production.

Q2. Which of the following statements is false regarding offices in Gujarat?
A) APMC main office in Gujarat is in Gandhinagar
B) NAFED main office in Gujarat is in Ahmedabad
C) Patent Information Centre is in Vadodara
D) DGFT main office for import/export is in Rajkot
Answer: D
Explanation: DGFT main office for import/export is not in Rajkot.

Q3. Which countries are leading in rubber production?
A) India & China
B) USA & Australia
C) Thailand & Indonesia
D) Italy & Spain
Answer: C
Explanation: Thailand and Indonesia are the leading producers of rubber.

Q4. What is the economic part of the tea plant?
A) Flowers
B) Wood
C) Bud + tender young leaves
D) Bark
Answer: C
Explanation: The economic part of the tea plant is the bud and tender young leaves.

Q5. Which countries lead in oil palm production?
A) Indonesia & Malaysia
B) Thailand & India
C) China & Myanmar
D) Brazil & Peru
Answer: A
Explanation: Indonesia and Malaysia are the top producers of oil palm.

Q6. Which rose species is preferred for Gulkand?
A) Rosa damascena
B) Rosa chinensis
C) Rosa gallica
D) Rosa centifolia
Answer: D
Explanation: Rosa centifolia is commonly used for making Gulkand.

Q7. Gujarat ranks ______ by geographical area in India.
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
Answer: C
Explanation: Gujarat ranks fourth in India by geographical area.

Q8. Sweet potato is ________ in nature.
A) Diploid
B) Triploid
C) Tetraploid
D) Hexaploid
Answer: D
Explanation: Sweet potato is hexaploid in nature.

Q9. What is the tag color for foundation seed?
A) White
B) Blue
C) Yellow
D) Green
Answer: B
Explanation: The tag color for foundation seed is blue.

Q10. Which fruit has the highest fat content?
A) Mangosteen
B) Kokum
C) Jackfruit
D) Avocado
Answer: D
Explanation: Avocado has the highest fat content among fruits.

Q11. India has about ________ arable land.
A) 160 Mha
B) 210 Mha
C) 140 Mha
D) 110 Mha
Answer: A
Explanation: India has approximately 160 million hectares of arable land.

Q12. ICAR was established in ________.
A) 1920
B) 1925
C) 1929
D) 1935
Answer: C
Explanation: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in 1929.

Q13. ‘Pusa Beta’ Kesari belongs to which crop?
A) Cabbage
B) Cauliflower
C) Radish
D) Carrot
Answer: D
Explanation: ‘Pusa Beta’ Kesari is a variety of carrot.

Q14. When was the Division of Horticulture at IARI established?
A) 1956
B) 1960
C) 1965
D) 1970
Answer: A
Explanation: The Division of Horticulture at IARI was established in 1956.

Q15. What is the quickest method of preparing a lawn?
A) Seed
B) Dibbling
C) Plastering
D) Turfing
Answer: D
Explanation: Turfing is the quickest method to prepare a lawn.

Q16. Which crop requires regular pruning?
A) Mango
B) Grape
C) Jackfruit
D) Tamarind
Answer: B
Explanation: Grape vines require regular pruning for optimal growth.

Q17. Select the wrong statement about the Sardar Sarovar project.
A) Sardar Sarovar dam is major
B) Narmada canal 3rd largest in world
C) Spillway discharge highest
D) Statue of Unity is 182 m
Answer: B
Explanation: The Narmada canal is not the 3rd largest in the world.

Q18. Select the correct economic part of the plant.
A) Clove – Capsule
B) Tea – Tender leaves
C) Cinnamon – Fruit
D) Turmeric – Corm
Answer: B
Explanation: The economic part of the tea plant is its tender leaves.

Q19. Where is AVRDC located?
A) Philippines
B) Indonesia
C) Taiwan
D) Vietnam
Answer: C
Explanation: AVRDC, the World Vegetable Center, is located in Taiwan.

Q20. What does the Hedonic scale measure?
A) Sensory quality
B) Chemical quality
C) Microbial quality
D) Physical quality
Answer: A
Explanation: The Hedonic scale measures sensory quality.

Q21. Which statement is false about crop production in India?
A) WB leads brinjal
B) MH leads onion
C) UP leads garden pea
D) Gujarat leads potato
Answer: D
Explanation: Gujarat does not lead in potato production.

Q22. Choose the correct statement about growth and plant responses.
A) Growth = only cell division
B) Totipotency = temperature response
C) Thigmotropism = temperature response
D) India has nine horticulture regions
Answer: D
Explanation: India is divided into nine horticulture regions.

Q23. What is the respiratory quotient?
A) CO₂ produced / O₂ consumed
B) O₂ / CO₂
C) CO / CO₂
D) O₂ / N₂
Answer: A
Explanation: The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO₂ produced to O₂ consumed.

Q24. Which statement about processed products is true?
A) Wooden boxes for flowers
B) NHB established 1985
C) Citrus is climacteric
D) Hypobaric storage = vacuum
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Horticulture Board (NHB) was established in 1985.

Q25. Choose the correct statement about technology in agriculture.
A) X-ray CT for nondestructive analysis
B) Annona reticulata = soursop
C) Palm oil in endocarp
D) Date palm = humid tropical
Answer: A
Explanation: X-ray CT is used for nondestructive analysis in agriculture.

Q26. Bhu Krishna & Bhu Sona belong to which crop?
A) Potato
B) Lesser yam
C) Sweet potato
D) Greater yam
Answer: C
Explanation: Bhu Krishna & Bhu Sona are varieties of sweet potato.

Q27. When was the Directorate of Horticulture, Gujarat established?
A) 1991
B) 1992
C) 1993
D) 1995
Answer: C
Explanation: The Directorate of Horticulture, Gujarat was established in 1993.

Q28. Solapur Lal belongs to which crop?
A) Grape
B) Pomegranate
C) Onion
D) Citrus
Answer: C
Explanation: Solapur Lal is a variety of onion.

Q29. Which project aims at improving agricultural education?
A) NATP
B) NAHEP
C) NADP
D) NASSP
Answer: B
Explanation: NAHEP focuses on improving agricultural education.

Q30. Identify the false statement about India’s geography and agriculture.
A) India lies entirely in Southern hemisphere
B) Meteorological drought = no rainfall
C) Polyhouse curtains closed at night
D) Fan-pad uses cellulose
Answer: A
Explanation: India lies in the Northern hemisphere.

Q31. Which is the odd option among these institutions?
A) DFR – Pune
B) DOGR – Pune
C) DCR – Puttur
D) DKMA – Ajmer
Answer: D
Explanation: DKMA is not located in Ajmer.

Q32. Which is the odd option among these research centers?
A) NRC Banana – Trichy
B) NRC Pomegranate – Solapur
C) NRC Litchi – Muzaffarpur
D) NRC Grapes – Puttur
Answer: D
Explanation: NRC Grapes is not located in Puttur.

Q33. GATT is related to ________.
A) Trade
B) Climate
C) Precision farming
D) Patents
Answer: A
Explanation: GATT stands for General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.

Q34. Which statement is wrong about plant handling?
A) Bare-root plant kept in plastic
B) Bordeaux = CuSO₄ + lime
C) Brown waste = carbon-rich
D) Bud sport = mutation
Answer: A
Explanation: Bare-root plants should not be kept in plastic.

Q35. Which is the odd institution?
A) IISS – Ranchi
B) IIWM – Bhubaneshwar
C) IISWC – Dehradun
D) IIPB – New Delhi
Answer: D
Explanation: IIPB is not related to soil or water conservation.

Q36. Photosynthesis is maximum in which color light?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Yellow
D) White
Answer: B
Explanation: Photosynthesis is most efficient under blue light.

Q37. Potato greening is due to ________.
A) High light
B) Darkness
C) Humidity
D) Moisture
Answer: A
Explanation: Exposure to high light causes potatoes to turn green.

Q38. Which statement about pruning systems is incorrect?
A) Heading back / thinning
B) Head system = telephone system
C) Bower suits vigorous
D) Low head system for storm
Answer: D
Explanation: Low head systems are not specifically for storm resistance.

Q39. Which statement about vinegar is correct?
A) Statement I true
B) Statement II true
C) Both false
D) Both true
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement I about vinegar is true.

Q40. Which statement about patents is wrong?
A) Patent valid 5 years
B) Patent excludes copying
C) Patent for invention
D) Limited period
Answer: A
Explanation: Patents are valid for more than 5 years.

Q41. Which statement about plant structures is wrong?
A) Cambium forms wood/bark
B) CSR
C) Chimeras = multiple tissues
D) Companion crops are competitive
Answer: D
Explanation: Companion crops are not typically competitive.

Q42. What is a variety developed by mixing many lines called?
A) Synthetic
B) Composite
C) Hybrid
D) Mutation
Answer: B
Explanation: A composite variety is developed by mixing many lines.

Q43. Where is IPGRI located?
A) USA
B) Rome
C) Brazil
D) India
Answer: B
Explanation: IPGRI, now known as Bioversity International, is located in Rome.

Q44. What is the superiority of F1 over parents called?
A) Heterosis
B) Hybrid vigour
C) Inheritance
D) Variability
Answer: B
Explanation: Hybrid vigour, or heterosis, is the superiority of F1 over parents.

Q45. What is the superiority of F1 over the best variety called?
A) Heritability
B) Heterobeltiosis
C) Superannuation
D) Variability
Answer: B
Explanation: Heterobeltiosis is the superiority of F1 over the best variety.

Q46. Which statements about mutation are correct?
A) I true, II false
B) I false, II true
C) Both false
D) Both true
Answer: D
Explanation: Both statements about mutation are true.

Q47. What is the progeny of a single homozygous selfed plant called?
A) Pure line
B) Mass selection
C) Bulk
D) Pedigree
Answer: A
Explanation: A pure line is the progeny of a single homozygous selfed plant.

Q48. True/false about Netherlands & floriculture?
A) I true, II false
B) I false, II true
C) Both false
D) Both true
Answer: A
Explanation: The first statement about Netherlands and floriculture is true.

Q49. Which statement about tuberose is irrelevant?
A) Bird of paradise = heliconia
B) Single/double types
C) Use single for loose
D) Bubbler used widely
Answer: D
Explanation: The statement about bubblers is irrelevant to tuberose.

Q50. Which statement about orchids is wrong?
A) Orchid = largest family
B) Netherlands = top exporter
C) Temperature = dominant factor
D) Mostly epiphytic
Answer: C
Explanation: Temperature is not the dominant factor for orchids.

Q51. Which statement about color is true?
A) Secondary = orange, green, violet
B) Primary = red, blue, yellow
C) Both false
D) Both true
Answer: D
Explanation: Both statements about primary and secondary colors are true.

Q52. Which statement about jasmine is incorrect?
A) Harvested at full open
B) Oil preferred
C) Hexane used
D) Aromatherapy use
Answer: A
Explanation: Jasmine is not harvested at full open; buds are preferred.

This online quiz on Horticulture contains 85 carefully selected multiple choice questions based on the topic “Horticulture JRF/SRF Test-1”. It is designed for students preparing for ICAR JRF, SRF, MSc, PhD and other agriculture competitive examinations, as well as state-level entrance tests. The questions focus on important concepts, frequently asked points and practical field applications so that you can quickly revise and evaluate your understanding. You will get 85 minutes to complete the test. Attempt the quiz, check the detailed explanations after submission and use it as a practice set to strengthen your preparation in Horticulture.

Quiz Questions (fallback text view):

Q1. Seed crops of coriander should be harvested when?
A) 10% turn yellow
B) 30% turn yellow
C) 50% turn yellow
D) 70% turn yellow
Answer: C
Explanation: Coriander seeds are best harvested when 50% of the seeds turn yellow.

Q2. Rangpur lime suitability & resistance?
A) Both true
B) Both false
C) I true, II false
D) I false, II true
Answer: C
Explanation: Rangpur lime is suitable and resistant to certain conditions.

Q3. Pithiness occurs in which vegetable?
A) Radish
B) Tomato
C) Cucumber
D) Sweet potato
Answer: A
Explanation: Pithiness is a common issue in radishes.

Q4. Which basmati variety has the highest export share?
A) Pusa 1121
B) Improved Pusa Basmati
C) Pusa Basmati-
D) Pusa 1509
Answer: A
Explanation: Pusa 1121 is known for its high export share.

Q5. What is the ancestor of cole crops?
A) B. oleracea capitata
B) B. oleracea sylvestris
C) B. oleracea italica
D) B. oleracea acephala
Answer: B
Explanation: B. oleracea sylvestris is the ancestor of cole crops.

Q6. Softening in melting flesh peaches occurs at which stage?
A) First stage
B) Mid stage
C) Last stage
D) Senescence
Answer: C
Explanation: Softening occurs at the last stage in melting flesh peaches.

Q7. Which vegetable is suited for saline soil?
A) Cabbage
B) Watermelon
C) Potato
D) Beet
Answer: D
Explanation: Beet is well-suited for saline soil conditions.

Q8. Which chemical is used for gynoecious muskmelon maintenance?
A) MCEB
B) NAA
C) GA3
D) PCPA
Answer: A
Explanation: MCEB is used to maintain gynoecious muskmelon lines.

Q9. Which fruit follows a double sigmoid growth curve?
A) Apple
B) Pear
C) Peach
D) Plum
Answer: C
Explanation: Peach exhibits a double sigmoid growth curve.

Q10. Which is a foliage annual?
A) Kochia
B) Ice plant
C) Marigold
D) Zinnia
Answer: A
Explanation: Kochia is known as a foliage annual plant.

Q11. Which training system is known as the V-shape?
A) Vertical centre
B) Kniffin
C) Tatura trellis
D) Spindle bush
Answer: C
Explanation: The Tatura trellis system is a V-shape training system.

Q12. Solasodine is found in which plant?
A) Tomato
B) Brinjal
C) Garlic
D) Onion
Answer: B
Explanation: Solasodine is a compound found in brinjal.

Q13. Vegetable grafting is used to control which disease?
A) Fusarium wilt
B) Bud necrosis
C) Mites
D) Downy mildew
Answer: A
Explanation: Grafting helps control Fusarium wilt in vegetables.

Q14. Girdling is common in which fruit?
A) Mango
B) Grapes
C) Papaya
D) Guava
Answer: B
Explanation: Girdling is a common practice in grape cultivation.

Q15. Which mango rootstocks are salinity tolerant?
A) Vellai Kollumban
B) Rumani
C) Olour
D) Kurukkan & Olour
Answer: D
Explanation: Kurukkan and Olour are known for their salinity tolerance.

Q16. Which plant is known as the ‘Flame of the Forest’?
A) Callistemon lanceolatus
B) Cassia fistula
C) Butea monosperma
D) Cassia javanica
Answer: C
Explanation: Butea monosperma is commonly referred to as the ‘Flame of the Forest’.

Q17. Hollyhock and Sweet pea are used for?
A) Hanging basket
B) Screening
C) Oil extraction
D) Rockery
Answer: B
Explanation: These plants are often used for screening purposes.

Q18. Which flower is most prone to red spider mite?
A) Carnation
B) Tuberose
C) Gladiolus
D) Calendula
Answer: A
Explanation: Carnations are highly susceptible to red spider mite infestations.

Q19. VAM fungi are classified as?
A) Free-living
B) Obligate symbiont
C) Facultative
D) Obligate parasite
Answer: B
Explanation: VAM fungi are obligate symbionts, requiring a host to survive.

Q20. Where is the NBRI located?
A) New Delhi
B) Lucknow
C) Vadodara
D) Chennai
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) is located in Lucknow.

Q21. What is the optimum temperature for wheat sowing?
A) 22–23°C
B) 15–20°C
C) 25–27°C
D) 28–30°C
Answer: A
Explanation: The ideal temperature for wheat sowing is 22–23°C.

Q22. Remote sensing and GIS are essential for?
A) Integrated farming
B) Intensive farming
C) Precision farming
D) Mixed farming
Answer: C
Explanation: Precision farming heavily relies on remote sensing and GIS technologies.

Q23. A woody perennial with no trunk is called a?
A) Herb
B) Shrub
C) Tree
D) Annual
Answer: B
Explanation: A shrub is a woody plant that lacks a distinct trunk.

Q24. Windbreaks are usually placed in which direction?
A) SW
B) NE
C) SE
D) NW
Answer: D
Explanation: Windbreaks are often placed in the NW direction to block prevailing winds.

Q25. Which was the first Hybrid Tea Rose?
A) La France
B) Pixie
C) Gold Star
D) Queen Elizabeth
Answer: A
Explanation: La France is recognized as the first Hybrid Tea Rose.

Q26. The inflorescence type of banana is?
A) Thyrse
B) Catkin
C) Hypanthodium
D) Spadix
Answer: A
Explanation: Banana has a thyrse type of inflorescence.

Q27. What is the process of removing field heat called?
A) Stratification
B) Hardening
C) Pulsing
D) Pre-cooling
Answer: D
Explanation: Pre-cooling is used to remove field heat from harvested produce.

Q28. The sex form of tapioca is?
A) Monoecious
B) Dioecious
C) Bisexual
D) Gynoecious
Answer: A
Explanation: Tapioca plants are monoecious, having both male and female flowers.

Q29. Which fruit is known as ‘Mood food’?
A) Watermelon
B) Muskmelon
C) Red cherry
D) Date palm
Answer: A
Explanation: Watermelon is often referred to as ‘Mood food’ due to its refreshing nature.

Q30. The ZW-20 CP gene line is associated with which crop?
A) Cucumber
B) Summer squash
C) Watermelon
D) Muskmelon
Answer: B
Explanation: The ZW-20 CP gene line is related to summer squash.

Q31. Which crop is most prone to red spider mite?
A) Carnation
B) Tuberose
C) Gladiolus
D) Calendula
Answer: A
Explanation: Carnation is highly susceptible to red spider mite attacks.

Q32. Which is the largest producer of bananas in India?
A) Karnataka
B) Maharashtra
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Gujarat
Answer: C
Explanation: Tamil Nadu is the largest banana-producing state in India.

Q33. What is the best rootstock for citrus in India?
A) Rough lemon
B) Trifoliate orange
C) Rangpur lime
D) Cleopatra mandarin
Answer: A
Explanation: Rough lemon is commonly used as a rootstock for citrus in India.

Q34. Papaya is classified as?
A) Dioecious
B) Monoecious
C) Gynoecious
D) Andromonoecious
Answer: A
Explanation: Papaya plants are dioecious, having separate male and female plants.

Q35. Mango flowering typically occurs in which season?
A) Summer
B) Winter
C) Spring
D) Autumn
Answer: B
Explanation: Mango trees usually flower during the winter season.

Q36. Groundnut is classified as which type of plant?
A) C3 plant
B) C4 plant
C) CAM plant
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Groundnut is a C3 plant, utilizing the C3 photosynthetic pathway.

Q37. What is the seed rate of wheat per hectare?
A) 40–50 kg
B) 100–125 kg
C) 150–170 kg
D) 5–10 kg
Answer: B
Explanation: The recommended seed rate for wheat is 100–125 kg per hectare.

Q38. Which gas induces ripening in fruits?
A) CO2
B) Ethylene
C) NH3
D) NO2
Answer: B
Explanation: Ethylene is a natural plant hormone that induces ripening in fruits.

Q39. Which fruit has the highest sugar content?
A) Grape
B) Banana
C) Date
D) Mango
Answer: C
Explanation: Dates are known for their high sugar content compared to other fruits.

Q40. What is the best storage temperature for apples?
A) 0°C to 4°C
B) 10°C
C) 15°C
D) 20°C
Answer: A
Explanation: Apples are best stored at temperatures between 0°C to 4°C.

Q41. Okra is rich in which nutrient?
A) Protein
B) Iodine
C) Iron
D) Calcium
Answer: C
Explanation: Okra is a good source of iron.

Q42. Which hormone is known as the flowering hormone?
A) ABA
B) Florigen
C) Cytokinin
D) Auxin
Answer: B
Explanation: Florigen is a hypothetical hormone believed to induce flowering.

Q43. Mango fruits split due to deficiency of which nutrient?
A) Boron
B) Potassium
C) Zinc
D) Calcium
Answer: A
Explanation: Boron deficiency can lead to splitting in mango fruits.

Q44. What is the ideal pH for tomato cultivation?
A) 5–6
B) 6–7
C) 7–8
D) 8–9
Answer: B
Explanation: Tomatoes thrive best in a pH range of 6–7.

Q45. Which grape variety is seedless?
A) Thompson Seedless
B) Bangalore Blue
C) Anab-e-Shahi
D) Beauty Seedless
Answer: A
Explanation: Thompson Seedless is a popular seedless grape variety.

Q46. Amla is propagated by which method?
A) Softwood grafting
B) Seeds
C) Hardwood cutting
D) Layering
Answer: A
Explanation: Amla is commonly propagated through softwood grafting.

Q47. Which training system is best for grapes?
A) Bower
B) Kniffin
C) Head
D) Tatura
Answer: A
Explanation: The Bower system is widely used for training grapevines.

Q48. Drip irrigation can save what percentage of water?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 50–70%
D) 80%
Answer: C
Explanation: Drip irrigation can save 50–70% of water compared to traditional methods.

Q49. Which mango variety is preferred for processing?
A) Totapuri
B) Chausa
C) Langra
D) Kesar
Answer: A
Explanation: Totapuri mangoes are commonly used in processing due to their firm texture.

Q50. Which fruit is non-climacteric?
A) Banana
B) Tomato
C) Grape
D) Apple
Answer: C
Explanation: Grapes are non-climacteric, meaning they do not ripen after being picked.

Q51. Fruit cracking in pomegranate is caused by?
A) Boron deficiency
B) Calcium deficiency
C) Water stress
D) All
Answer: D
Explanation: Fruit cracking in pomegranates can be due to multiple factors, including nutrient deficiencies and water stress.

Q52. Potato greening is caused by?
A) Light
B) Moisture
C) Temperature
D) Chemicals
Answer: A
Explanation: Exposure to light causes potatoes to turn green.

Q53. Which pulse has the highest protein content?
A) Moong
B) Urad
C) Soybean
D) Arhar
Answer: C
Explanation: Soybean is known for its high protein content among pulses.

Q54. The best season for pea cultivation is?
A) Kharif
B) Rabi
C) Zaid
D) Summer
Answer: B
Explanation: Peas are typically grown during the Rabi season.

Q55. Which vegetable is rich in Vitamin A?
A) Carrot
B) Onion
C) Cabbage
D) Radish
Answer: A
Explanation: Carrots are an excellent source of Vitamin A.

Q56. The Golden Revolution is associated with?
A) Fruits
B) Honey
C) Oilseeds
D) Vegetables
Answer: B
Explanation: The Golden Revolution refers to the growth in honey production.

Q57. Ber is classified as which type of fruit?
A) Tropical fruit
B) Temperate fruit
C) Subtropical
D) Cold desert
Answer: A
Explanation: Ber is a tropical fruit commonly grown in warm climates.

Q58. Litchi cracking is mainly caused by?
A) Temperature fluctuation
B) Boron deficiency
C) High humidity
D) Wind
Answer: B
Explanation: Boron deficiency is a primary cause of litchi cracking.

Q59. Banana is propagated by?
A) Rhizome
B) Sucker
C) Bulb
D) Seed
Answer: B
Explanation: Bananas are typically propagated using suckers.

Q60. Tomato blossom end rot is caused by a deficiency of?
A) Calcium
B) Boron
C) Potassium
D) Zinc
Answer: A
Explanation: Blossom end rot in tomatoes is due to calcium deficiency.

Q61. Chilling injury in bananas occurs due to?
A) Banana
B) Apple
C) Plum
D) Pear
Answer: A
Explanation: Bananas are sensitive to chilling injuries when exposed to low temperatures.

Q62. Potato tubers are classified as?
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Fruit
Answer: B
Explanation: Potato tubers are modified stems, not roots.

Q63. Sweetness in watermelon is due to which sugar?
A) Fructose
B) Sucrose
C) Glucose
D) Maltose
Answer: A
Explanation: Fructose contributes to the sweetness of watermelon.

Q64. Which rootstock is used for apple trees?
A) MM-111
B) Olour
C) Rough lemon
D) Rangpur
Answer: A
Explanation: MM-111 is a commonly used rootstock for apple trees.

Q65. Which country is the largest exporter of bananas?
A) India
B) Ecuador
C) Brazil
D) China
Answer: B
Explanation: Ecuador is the largest exporter of bananas globally.

Q66. Which hormone promotes rooting?
A) GA3
B) IBA
C) Ethylene
D) ABA
Answer: B
Explanation: IBA (Indole-3-butyric acid) is used to promote rooting in plants.

Q67. What is the ideal pruning height for tea plants?
A) 30 cm
B) 45 cm
C) 60 cm
D) 90 cm
Answer: B
Explanation: Tea plants are typically pruned to a height of 45 cm.

Q68. Cabbage is classified as which type of day plant?
A) Long-day
B) Short-day
C) Day-neutral
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Cabbage is a long-day plant, requiring longer daylight hours to flower.

Q69. Guava seed viability lasts for how long?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 3 years
Answer: C
Explanation: Guava seeds remain viable for up to 2 years.

Q70. Citrus tristeza virus is transmitted by?
A) Aphids
B) Whiteflies
C) Mites
D) Thrips
Answer: A
Explanation: Aphids are the primary vectors for the citrus tristeza virus.

Q71. Which fruit is known as the ‘King of fruits’?
A) Banana
B) Mango
C) Apple
D) Grape
Answer: B
Explanation: Mango is often referred to as the ‘King of fruits’.

Q72. Which is the best intercrop for coconut plantations?
A) Pineapple
B) Potato
C) Sugarcane
D) Maize
Answer: A
Explanation: Pineapple is a suitable intercrop for coconut plantations.

Q73. Tomato fruit cracking is mainly due to?
A) Irregular irrigation
B) High humidity
C) Pruning
D) Light
Answer: A
Explanation: Irregular irrigation can lead to fruit cracking in tomatoes.

Q74. Which fruit is known as the ‘Queen of fruits’?
A) Litchi
B) Mangosteen
C) Strawberry
D) Grapes
Answer: B
Explanation: Mangosteen is often called the ‘Queen of fruits’.

Q75. Seed dormancy in paddy is broken by?
A) GA3
B) KNO3
C) H2SO4
D) Cold treatment
Answer: A
Explanation: GA3 (Gibberellic acid) is used to break seed dormancy in paddy.

Q76. Which fruit is climacteric?
A) Grape
B) Litchi
C) Banana
D) Pineapple
Answer: C
Explanation: Banana is a climacteric fruit, meaning it continues to ripen after harvest.

Q77. Which vitamin is abundant in amla?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Answer: C
Explanation: Amla is rich in Vitamin C, known for its antioxidant properties.

Q78. Mango malformation is caused by?
A) Fungus
B) Bacteria
C) Virus
D) Mite
Answer: A
Explanation: Fungal infections are a common cause of mango malformation.

Q79. What is the best soil type for potato cultivation?
A) Sandy loam
B) Clay
C) Black soil
D) Red soil
Answer: A
Explanation: Sandy loam soil is ideal for potato cultivation due to its drainage properties.

Q80. Which nutrient deficiency causes marginal scorching in leaves?
A) Chlorosis
B) Marginal scorching
C) Wilting
D) Brittle leaves
Answer: B
Explanation: Marginal scorching is a symptom of potassium deficiency.

Q81. What is the spacing requirement for cotton plants?
A) 30×30 cm
B) 60×30 cm
C) 75×60 cm
D) 90×90 cm
Answer: C
Explanation: Cotton plants are typically spaced at 75×60 cm.

Q82. Rice inflorescence is classified as?
A) Panicle
B) Spike
C) Raceme
D) Spadix
Answer: A
Explanation: Rice has a panicle type of inflorescence.

Q83. Wheat belongs to which plant family?
A) Gramineae
B) Solanaceae
C) Malvaceae
D) Leguminosae
Answer: A
Explanation: Wheat is a member of the Gramineae family.

Q84. Which gas is used to induce ripening in fruits?
A) CO2
B) Ethylene
C) NH3
D) NO2
Answer: B
Explanation: Ethylene is used to induce ripening in many fruits.

Q85. Which nutrient is okra rich in?
A) Protein
B) Iodine
C) Iron
D) Calcium
Answer: C
Explanation: Okra is a good source of iron.