THIS QUIZ CONTAINS 110 QUESTION
Q1. Match the following: List-1 (i) Ovipositor, (ii) Palpi, (iii) Lacinia, (iv) Dipteran larva; List-2 (a) Egg-laying organ, (b) Sensory appendages, (c) Cutting part of maxilla, (d) Maggot with reduced head capsule.
A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
Answer: A
Explanation: This is the correct.
Q2. Two species competing for same limited resource cannot coexist indefinitely — who proposed?
A) Hutchinson
B) Elton
C) Haeckel
D) Gause
Answer: D
Explanation: Gause proposed competitive exclusion principle.
Q3. Insecticides Act 1968 enforced fully in:
A) Sept 1982
B) Sept 1971
C) Aug 1971
D) Aug 1982
Answer: A
Explanation: Full enforcement began in September 1982.
Q4. Author of “Introduction to Insect Pest Management”
A) Barr
B) Dent
C) Smith
D) Metcalf & Luckmann
Answer: D
Explanation: Standard textbook authored by Metcalf & Luckmann.
Q5. Lac insect belongs to:
A) Aphidoidea
B) Cicadoidea
C) Coccoidea
D) Grylloidea
Answer: C
Explanation: Lac insects belong to superfamily Coccoidea.
Q6. Rate of insecticide breakdown in soil increases with:
A) Low temp
B) High temp
C) Low humidity
D) High humidity
Answer: B
Explanation: High temperature accelerates degradation.
Q7. Function of T-DNA in Agrobacterium:
A) Protect bacterium
B) Provide energy
C) Integrate genes into plant genome
D) Destroy cell walls
Answer: C
Explanation: T-DNA integrates into plant chromosomes.
Q8. Human head louse:
A) Pediculus humanus capitis
B) Ctenocephalides canis
C) Helicoverpa armigera
D) Xenopsylla cheopis
Answer: A
Explanation: Correct scientific name.
Q9. Binocular vision occurs in:
A) Housefly
B) Mantis
C) Hornet
D) Honeybee
Answer: B
Explanation: Mantis uses binocular vision for prey capture.
Q10. Median tergal gland located on:
A) Lat. 1st abdominal seg
B) Lat. last abdominal seg
C) Mid dorsal tergal area
D) Lateral mesothorax
Answer: C
Explanation: Positioned on median tergal region.
Q11. Bt toxin is activated in:
A) Alkaline pH
B) Acidic pH
C) Neutral pH
D) Both acidic & neutral
Answer: A
Explanation: Bt protoxin requires alkaline midgut pH.
Q12. Biocontrol agent of prickly pear:
A) Dactylopius tomentosus
B) Ophimyia oryzae
C) Neochetina bruchi
D) Ophionyta lantanae
Answer: A
Explanation: Cochineal insect used for prickly pear control.
Q13. European foulbrood is caused by:
A) Aspergillus flavus
B) Melissococcus plutonius
C) Ascosphaera apis
D) Nosema apis
Answer: B
Explanation: Bacterial disease of brood.
Q14. Term “Push–Pull” coined by:
A) Odhiambo
B) Miller
C) Altieri
D) Pyke
Answer: A
Explanation: Push–Pull developed in Kenya by Odhiambo.
Q15. ICZN established in:
A) 1842
B) 1858
C) 1872
D) 1895
Answer: D
Explanation: ICZN formed in 1895.
Q16. Cyrtobagous salviniae introduced from:
A) New Zealand
B) Hawaii
C) Brazil
D) Australia
Answer: C
Explanation: Salvinia weevil originates from Brazil.
Q17. Protease inhibitor in GM plants inhibits:
A) Serine protease
B) Cathepsin
C) Pepsin
D) Trypsin
Answer: D
Explanation: Trypsin inhibitors act on insect digestive enzymes.
Q18. Reproduction in lac insect:
A) Neoteny
B) Viviparous
C) Ovoviviparous
D) Paedogenetic
Answer: C
Explanation: Female lac insects release live young from eggs retained inside.
Q19. EBPM concept proposed by:
A) FAO
B) Agricultural Board NRC
C) NIPM
D) World Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: NRC Agricultural Board introduced EBPM.
Q20. Environmental EIL proposed by:
A) Holling
B) Headley
C) Stern
D) Pedigo
Answer: B
Explanation: Headley developed the economic injury concept.
Q21. DDT formulated first in:
A) 1874
B) 1939
C) 1945
D) 1951
Answer: A
Explanation: Synthesized in 1874; insecticidal action discovered later.
Q22. Founder of modern ecology:
A) Haeckel
B) Elton
C) Odum
D) Warming
Answer: D
Explanation: Warming is called father of modern plant ecology.
Q23. Monarch butterfly migration is example of:
A) Kinesis
B) Taxis
C) Migration
D) Orientation
Answer: C
Explanation: Seasonal long-distance movement.
Q24. Culex larva breaths through:
A) Anal gills
B) Thoracic spiracle
C) Respiratory siphon
D) None
Answer: C
Explanation: Uses siphon to breathe atmospheric air.
Q25. Silverleaf whitefly transmits:
A) Tungro
B) Yellow mosaic virus
C) Tomato leaf curl
D) Grassy shoot
Answer: C
Explanation: Bemisia tabaci spreads leaf curl viruses.
Q26. Indian locust plague linked with:
A) Cyclone
B) Cloud burst
C) Drought
D) Earthquake
Answer: C
Explanation: Drought followed by rain triggers locust breeding.
Q27. Housefly mouthparts:
A) Chewing
B) Piercing-sucking
C) Sponging
D) Chewing-lapping
Answer: C
Explanation: Sponging labellum absorbs liquids.
Q28. Argasid ticks are:
A) Soft ticks
B) Hard ticks
C) Seed ticks
D) None
Answer: A
Explanation: Argasidae = soft ticks.
Q29. Sterility principle of SIT is based on:
A) X-ray
B) Microwave
C) Sterile male release
D) Acoustic vibration
Answer: C
Explanation: Sterile males compete with wild males.
Q30. Most resistant life stage to insecticides:
A) Egg
B) Larva
C) Pupa
D) Adult
Answer: C
Explanation: Pupal cuticle gives protection.
Q31. Lethal dose LD50 refers to:
A) 100% mortality
B) 50% mortality
C) No effect dose
D) Sublethal dose
Answer: B
Explanation: Dose killing 50% test population.
Q32. Rice gall midge scientific name:
A) Orseolia oryzae
B) Nilaparvata lugens
C) Scirpophaga incertulas
D) Cnaphalocrocis medinalis
Answer: A
Explanation: Gall midge forms onion-shaped galls.
Q33. Term “ecotype” coined by:
A) Turesson
B) Warming
C) Shelford
D) Odum
Answer: A
Explanation: Turesson introduced ecotype concept.
Q34. Insect haemolymph lacks:
A) Haemoglobin
B) Trehalose
C) Amino acids
D) Proteins
Answer: A
Explanation: Insects do not use haemoglobin for oxygen.
Q35. Organophosphate insecticides inhibit:
A) Chitin synthesis
B) AChE enzyme
C) Sodium channels
D) Juvenile hormone
Answer: B
Explanation: Act as cholinesterase inhibitors.
Q36. Chitin is polymer of:
A) Glucose
B) N-acetyl glucosamine
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
Answer: B
Explanation: Repeating NAG units.
Q37. Honeybee caste determined by:
A) Pollen amount
B) Royal jelly
C) Temperature
D) Genetic sex
Answer: B
Explanation: Royal jelly fed to larvae produces queens.
Q38. Economic threshold level is:
A) Pest density to initiate control
B) Loss equals control cost
C) Zero pest level
D) Pest cannot be controlled
Answer: A
Explanation: ETL triggers management decision.
Q39. Bollworm diapause induced by:
A) High temp
B) Long day
C) Short day + low temp
D) High humidity
Answer: C
Explanation: Cold + short photoperiod triggers diapause.
Q40. IPM stands for:
A) Integrated Pest Monitoring
B) International Pest Management
C) Integrated Pest Management
D) Internal Pest Management
Answer: C
Explanation: IPM integrates multiple compatible tactics.
Q41. Insecticide banned in India:
A) Malathion
B) DDT
C) Acephate
D) Carbaryl
Answer: B
Explanation: DDT banned for agriculture.
Q42. Pheromone traps mainly used for:
A) Adult monitoring
B) Larval kill
C) Egg removal
D) Nymph trapping
Answer: A
Explanation: Used to monitor adult males.
Q43. Silk produced by:
A) Lac insect
B) Honeybee
C) Silkworm
D) Wasp
Answer: C
Explanation: Bombyx mori produces silk.
Q44. Term “super-parasite” refers to:
A) Many parasites per host
B) No parasite host
C) One parasite only
D) Parasite larger than host
Answer: A
Explanation: Multiple individuals attack one host.
Q45. Larva of mosquito is called:
A) Crawler
B) Wiggler
C) Pupa
D) Nymph
Answer: B
Explanation: Wigglers move in jerks.
Q46. Red cotton bug feeds on:
A) Leaf tissue
B) Plant roots
C) Cotton seeds
D) Cotton stem
Answer: C
Explanation: Sucks sap from seeds of opened bolls.
Q47. Coccinellids used for:
A) Whitefly control
B) Mealybug control
C) Aphid control
D) Termite control
Answer: C
Explanation: Ladybird beetles eat aphids.
Q48. Molting hormone in insects:
A) Juvenile hormone
B) Ecdysone
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Answer: B
Explanation: Ecdysone triggers molting process.
Q49. Term “pest resurgence” means:
A) Increase after pesticide use
B) Increase due to predators
C) Natural decline
D) Pest eradication
Answer: A
Explanation: Pests rebound due to natural enemy destruction.
Q50. Brown planthopper damages rice by:
A) Dead heart
B) White ear
C) Hopper burn
D) Stunting
Answer: C
Explanation: Causes hopper burn in patches.
Q51. Silverfish belong to:
A) Thysanura
B) Orthoptera
C) Isoptera
D) Coleoptera
Answer: A
Explanation: Primitive wingless insects.
Q52. Life cycle without metamorphosis:
A) Ametabolous
B) Hemimetabolous
C) Holometabolous
D) Paurometabolous
Answer: A
Explanation: No metamorphosis progress.
Q53. Long antennae typical of:
A) Diptera
B) Lepidoptera
C) Orthoptera
D) Hemiptera
Answer: C
Explanation: Grasshoppers/crickets have long antennae.
Q54. Honeybee drone function:
A) Foraging
B) Egg laying
C) Defense
D) Mating
Answer: D
Explanation: Drones mate with queen.
Q55. Mealybugs covered with:
A) Wax
B) Chitin
C) Keratin
D) Protein
Answer: A
Explanation: Mealybugs secrete waxy powder.
Q56. Pink bollworm attacks:
A) Rice
B) Cotton
C) Wheat
D) Sugarcane
Answer: B
Explanation: Damages cotton bolls.
Q57. Culex transmits:
A) Malaria
B) Filariasis
C) Typhus
D) Yellow fever
Answer: B
Explanation: Culex vectors Wuchereria bancrofti.
Q58. Trombiculid mites cause:
A) Itching
B) Scabies
C) Scrub typhus
D) Mange
Answer: C
Explanation: Vector of scrub typhus.
Q59. Tobacco caterpillar:
A) Spodoptera litura
B) Helicoverpa armigera
C) Earias vittella
D) Chilo partellus
Answer: A
Explanation: Major defoliator pest.
Q60. Sand fly transmits:
A) Leprosy
B) Kala-azar
C) Dengue
D) Plague
Answer: B
Explanation: Sand flies spread leishmaniasis.
Q61. Insect heart located:
A) Ventrally
B) Laterally
C) Dorsally
D) Posteriorly
Answer: C
Explanation: Dorsal pulsatile vessel.
Q62. Termitarium refers to:
A) Wasp nest
B) Ant nest
C) Termite mound
D) Spider web
Answer: C
Explanation: Termite colonies form mounds.
Q63. Thrips mouthparts:
A) Chewing
B) Rasping-sucking
C) Siphoning
D) Piercing-sucking
Answer: B
Explanation: Thrips have rasping-sucking mouthparts.
Q64. Largest insect order:
A) Diptera
B) Lepidoptera
C) Coleoptera
D) Hemiptera
Answer: C
Explanation: Beetles are most numerous.
Q65. Chitin present in:
A) Gut
B) Blood
C) Cuticle
D) Muscles
Answer: C
Explanation: Cuticle made of chitin.
Q66. Natural enemies include:
A) Pathogens
B) Parasitoids
C) Predators
D) All above
Answer: D
Explanation: All used in biological control.
Q67. Aphids reproduce by:
A) Sexual only
B) Parthenogenesis
C) Viviparity only
D) Egg laying
Answer: B
Explanation: Aphids commonly show parthenogenesis.
Q68. Neem acts as:
A) Feeding stimulant
B) Antifeedant
C) Attractant
D) Pheromone
Answer: B
Explanation: Neem compounds deter feeding.
Q69. Term “honeydew” produced by:
A) Bees
B) Ants
C) Aphids
D) Thrips
Answer: C
Explanation: Sugary excretions of sap feeders.
Q70. White grubs are larvae of:
A) Weevils
B) Scarab beetles
C) Flies
D) Moths
Answer: B
Explanation: Scarab beetle larvae are white grubs.
Q71. Grain weevil:
A) Sitophilus oryzae
B) Rhyzopertha dominica
C) Tribolium castaneum
D) Trogoderma granarium
Answer: A
Explanation: Rice weevil is Sitophilus oryzae.
Q72. Khapra beetle:
A) Sitophilus granarius
B) Trogoderma granarium
C) Oryzaephilus spp.
D) Callosobruchus spp.
Answer: B
Explanation: Quarantine pest of stored grain.
Q73. Pulse beetle:
A) Sitophilus spp.
B) Callosobruchus chinensis
C) Trogoderma spp.
D) Tribolium spp.
Answer: B
Explanation: Serious pest of pulses.
Q74. Indian meal moth:
A) Plodia interpunctella
B) Corcyra cephalonica
C) Ephestia cautella
D) Sitophilus oryzae
Answer: A
Explanation: Common stored-grain moth.
Q75. Musca domestica breeding media:
A) Wet soil
B) Organic waste
C) Water only
D) Dry leaves
Answer: B
Explanation: Breeds in decaying organic matter.
Q76. Vector of malaria:
A) Culex
B) Anopheles
C) Aedes
D) Mansonia
Answer: B
Explanation: Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria.
Q77. Aedes aegypti vector of:
A) Malaria
B) Dengue
C) Cholera
D) Filariasis
Answer: B
Explanation: Aedes spreads dengue virus.
Q78. Bombardier beetle defense mechanism:
A) Mimicry
B) Chemical spray
C) Stinging
D) Camouflage
Answer: B
Explanation: Releases hot chemical spray.
Q79. Cabbage butterfly:
A) Pieris brassicae
B) Papilio demoleus
C) Junonia lemonias
D) Helicoverpa armigera
Answer: A
Explanation: Feeds on crucifers.
Q80. Armyworm:
A) Mythimna separata
B) Spodoptera litura
C) Helicoverpa armigera
D) Chilo partellus
Answer: A
Explanation: Separata called oriental armyworm.
Q81. Term “stadium” refers to:
A) Stage
B) Duration of stage
C) Growth period
D) Larval life
Answer: B
Explanation: Stadium = duration of instar.
Q82. Corn earworm:
A) Chilo partellus
B) Helicoverpa armigera
C) Spodoptera frugiperda
D) Sesamia inferens
Answer: C
Explanation: Fall armyworm is major corn pest.
Q83. Entomogenous fungus:
A) Metarhizium
B) Aspergillus
C) Penicillium
D) Rhizopus
Answer: A
Explanation: Metarhizium infects insects.
Q84. Antennae segments called:
A) Tarsi
B) Flagellomeres
C) Ommatidia
D) Styli
Answer: B
Explanation: Antennae consist of flagellomeres.
Q85. Queen substance produced by:
A) Worker bees
B) Drone bees
C) Queen bee
D) Brood
Answer: C
Explanation: Queen secretes pheromone.
Q86. Honeybee dance language discovered by:
A) Lindauer
B) Von Frisch
C) Butler
D) Farrar
Answer: B
Explanation: Nobel Prize for decoding bee dance.
Q87. Chemical used in fumigation:
A) DDVP
B) Aluminium phosphide
C) Copper sulphate
D) Zinc phosphide
Answer: B
Explanation: Releases phosphine gas.
Q88. Micropyle found on:
A) Chorion
B) Spermatheca
C) Ommatidium
D) Hemocoel
Answer: A
Explanation: Opening in eggshell for sperm entry.
Q89. Hypermetamorphosis occurs in:
A) Lepidoptera
B) Coleoptera
C) Strepsiptera
D) Diptera
Answer: C
Explanation: Strepsiptera shows hypermetamorphosis.
Q90. Vermiculture earthworm:
A) Eisenia foetida
B) Pheretima posthuma
C) Lampito mauritii
D) Drawida spp.
Answer: A
Explanation: E. foetida used in vermicomposting.
Q91. Flea is vector of:
A) Malaria
B) Plague
C) Dengue
D) Filariasis
Answer: B
Explanation: Xenopsylla transmits plague.
Q92. Hard ticks belong to:
A) Argasidae
B) Ixodidae
C) Sarcoptidae
D) Culicidae
Answer: B
Explanation: Ixodidae are hard ticks.
Q93. Term “stadium” is:
A) Instar
B) Time between molts
C) Egg period
D) Pupal period
Answer: B
Explanation: Stadium = interval between molts.
Q94. Weevil mouthparts:
A) Chewing
B) Chewing-lapping
C) Siphoning
D) Piercing
Answer: A
Explanation: Weevils possess chewing mouthparts.
Q95. Housefly metamorphosis:
A) Ametabolous
B) Paurometabolous
C) Holometabolous
D) Hemimetabolous
Answer: C
Explanation: Fly undergoes complete metamorphosis.
Q96. Blister beetle toxin:
A) Nicotine
B) Cantharidin
C) Azadirachtin
D) Rotenone
Answer: B
Explanation: Produces cantharidin.
Q97. Mayfly adults:
A) Feed actively
B) Do not feed
C) Feed on nectar
D) Feed on blood
Answer: B
Explanation: Adult mayflies don’t feed.
Q98. Ecdysis means:
A) Egg laying
B) Molting
C) Feeding
D) Digestion
Answer: B
Explanation: Shedding of old cuticle.
Q99. Term “polyphagous” means:
A) One host
B) Two hosts
C) Many hosts
D) No host
Answer: C
Explanation: Feeds on many plants.
Q100. Sand wasp belongs to:
A) Vespoidea
B) Formicoidea
C) Sphecoidea
D) Apoidea
Answer: C
Explanation: Sphecoidea includes sand wasps.
Q101. Compound eye unit called:
A) Rhabdome
B) Ommatidium
C) Flagellum
D) Tracheole
Answer: B
Explanation: Ommatidium is eye unit.
Q102. Honeybee venom:
A) Histamine
B) Melittin
C) Serotonin
D) Hemolin
Answer: B
Explanation: Melittin is major component.
Q103. Looper movement typical of:
A) Noctuids
B) Crambids
C) Geometrids
D) Pyralids
Answer: C
Explanation: Geometridae larvae move as “loopers.”
Q104. Term “instar” refers to:
A) Time between molts
B) Stage between molts
C) Adult stage
D) Egg stage
Answer: B
Explanation: Instar = form between two molts.
Q105. Spiracles absent in:
A) Larvae
B) Eggs
C) Pupae
D) Some aquatic larvae
Answer: D
Explanation: Some aquatic larvae respire cutaneously.
Q106. Term “proboscis” found in:
A) Wasps
B) Lepidoptera
C) Orthoptera
D) Coleoptera
Answer: B
Explanation: Butterflies have coiled proboscis.
Q107. Predator example:
A) Trichogramma
B) Aphelinus
C) Chrysoperla
D) Bracon
Answer: C
Explanation: Green lacewing is predator.
Q108. Parasitoid example:
A) Coccinella
B) Syrphus
C) Chelonus
D) Dragonfly
Answer: C
Explanation: Chelonus is parasitoid.
Q109. Sterile insect technique first used on:
A) Boll weevil
B) Screwworm fly
C) Whitefly
D) Fruit fly
Answer: B
Explanation: First used against screwworm.
Q110. Main component of insect cuticle:
A) Pectin
B) Collagen
C) Chitin
D) Elastin
Answer: C
Explanation: Chitin provides rigidity.